CSIR NET Life Science – Biochemistry Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022

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These Questions are strictly follow your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that this practice set of Questions will give you same exact feel of your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

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  • In this practice post there are total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given from the Chapter Biochemistry for CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and write down numbers from 1 to 100 .
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

CSIR NET Life Science – Biochemistry Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 [Practice Now]


  1. The pH of the blood is maintained by
    (a) mineral salts (b) globulins
    (c) albumins (d) haemoglobin
  2. A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
    (a) actin (b) haemoglobin
    (c) myosin (d) myoglobin
  3. Potassium cyanide stops cell activity by
    (a) preventing diffusion of O2
    (b) blocking trachea
    (c) preventing transfer of electrons from cytochrome a3 to O2
    (d) coagulating protein carriers
  4. Successful Replication of chromosomes does not require the presence of
    (a) Ribosomes (b) DNA Template
    (c) Nuclear enzymes (d) ATP
  5. In a diluted starch solution, a-salivary amylase is added at pH 1.6 and kept at 35°C for
    half an hour and then Iodine solution is added. What would be the result?
    (a) no black colour will appear
    (b) black colour will appear
    (c) solution will be clear and colourless
    (d) solution will be sweet
  6. An amino acid devoid of a free-COOH group can be an
    (a) Amine (b) Amide
    (c) Imine (d) Purine
  7. The most striking example of an unique point mutation is found in a disease called
    (a) Night blindness (b) Thalassemia
    (c) Down syndrome (d) Sickle cell anaemia
  8. For the formation of one molecule of hexose sugar, how many turns of Calvin cycle
    are needed ?
    (a) Six (b) One
    (c) Thirty-six (d) One-sixth
  9. The hormone that controls pulse rate and blood pressure is
    (a) vasopressin (b) oxytocin
    (c) adrenalin (d) thyroxine
  10. The maximum number of Hydrogen bonds in which water molecule can participate
    is?
    (a) 1 (b) 2
    (c) 3 (d) 4
  11. Denaturation of proteins leads to loss of biological activity by
    (a) formation of amino acid
    (b) loss of primary structure
    (c) loss of both primary and secondary structure
    (d) loss of secondary and tertiary structure
  12. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.76. What is the pH of 0.1 M solution of acetic acid?
    (a) 5.76 (b) 2.88
    (c) 2.43 (d) 1.88
  13. 40 g of ice at 0 °C and 80 g water at 40 oC are mixed thoroughly, the temperature of the mixture will be
    (a) 0° C (b) 10 °C
    (c) 20 °C (d) 30 °C
  14. Galactose and Mannose are two isomeric monosaccharides, which are
    (a) Enantiomers (b) Epimers
    (c) Anomers (d) Diastereoisorners
  15. Proteins absorbs maximally UV radiation at 280 nm due to the presence of
    (a) Tryptophan (b) Tyrosine
    (c) Phenyl alanine (d) All of the above
  16. Which one of the following solutions will have the least Osmotic Pressure?
    (a) 0.5 M glucose (b) 0.5 M NaCl
    (c) 0.5 M Na2SO4
    (d) 0.499 M Starch
  17. The free energy change (DG)at the midpoint of helix-coil transition in DNA melting
    curve is equal to
    (a) zero (b) 1.0
    (c) –1.0 (d) indeterminate
  18. DNA is usually dissolved in TRIS-EDTA buffer, EDTA is added to ensure that
    (a) DNA is not degraded by nucleases
    (b) Divalent metal ions are chelated
    (c) Both of the above
    (d) pH is kept alkaline
  19. Two proteins have same molecular weight and same isoelectric point. The best way to resolve them will be by
    (a) Ion Exchange Chromatography
    (b) Gel Filtration Chromatography
    (c) Reverse Phase Chromatography
    (d) Chromatofocussing
  20. Mark the incorrect statement: Ribozyme and Abzyme are
    (a) both enzymes
    (b) both proteins
    (c) RNA and protein respectively
    (d) able to hydrolyse phosphodiester and peptide bonds respectively
  21. DNA sequencing is done on a sequencing gel, which is
    (a) SDS-PAGE (b) Urea-PAGE
    (c) Native PAGE (d) Agarose
  22. The digestion of lipid takes place in small intestine by lipases, However, it does not
    occur till bile fluid mixes with the food. This mixing up of food with bile juice is
    essential for digestion of lipids because
    (a) lipases present in the intestine require another coenzyme present in the bile
    juice for its functioning
    (b) Emulsification is must for fats to be digested and for lipases to act upon lipids
    (c) lipase can only act at alkaline pH
    (d) None of the above
  23. Mark the Incorrect statement:
    (a) Endocrine signaling is relatively slow because it depends on diffusion and blood flow
    (b) If the same hormone has different effects on different target organs, the receptor are usually different
    (c) Water soluble hormones interact with cell surface receptors, whereas lipid soluble hormones usually bind to intracellular receptors
    (d) The specificity of hormone signaling depends on responsive cells possessing
    receptors that bond the hormone tightly by means of multiple weak bonds.
  24. Silencers are located to upstream of transcription start site and function-
    (a) in both the orientation (b) in forward orientation
    (c) in reverse orientation (d) None of the above
  25. The renaturation of the genome is a random collision of complementary sequences and follows
    (a) first order kinetics (b) second order kinetics
    (c) third order kinetics (d) None of the above
  26. Which one of the following electrophoresis dependents least on the charge of the
    protein?
    (a) Free zone capillary electrophoresis
    (b) Gel electrophoresis
    (c) SDS-polycrylamide gel electrophoresis
    (d) Isoelectric focussing
  27. Which one of the following compound has the highest group transfer potential for
    phosphate ?
    (a) Glucose-6-phosphate (b) Fructose-1, 6-diphosphate
    (c) 2-phosphoenolpyruvate (d) Adenosine triphosphate
  28. Which one of the following sets of glycolytic enzymes is allosterically regulated?
    (a) Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase
    (b) Hexokinase, aldolase and pyruvate kinase
    (c) Phosphofructokinase, enolase and pyruvate kinase
    (d) Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase
  29. Which one of the following compounds is required for acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl
    CoA)to enter the citric acid cycle?
    (a) Isocitrate (b) Malate
    (c) Oxaloacetate (d) Pyruvate
  30. Which one of the following DNA polymerase is essential for both the replication and repair of DNA?
    (a) DNA polymerase I (b) DNA polymerase II
    (c) DNA polymerase III (d) DNA polymerase d
  31. The factor required only for accurate initiations of transcription in prokaryotes is
    (a) alpha (a) (b) beta (b)
    (c) rho (r) (d) sigma (s)
  32. A post-transcriptional processing event that occurs in the formation of both messenger RNA (mRNA)and transfer RNA (t-RNA) in eukaryotes is
    (a) the addition of the sequence CCA to 3′ ends
    (b) the removal of introns by splicing
    (c) the modification of some of their bases
    (d) cleavage event before polyadenylation
  33. Eukaryotic mRNAs differ from Prokaryotic mRNAs in that
    (a) they do not have a 5′ untranslated region
    (b) their coding regions are separated by spacers
    (c) they do not have 3′ UTR
    (d) they have a free 3′ hydroxy group on each of their ends
  34. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that
    (a) a given base triplet can code for more than one amino acid
    (b) there is no punctuation in the code sequence
    (c) the third base in a codon is net important for coding
    (d) a given amino acid can be coded for by more than one base triplet
  35. Which one of the following sequences is most likely to be a restriction enzyme
    recognition site?
    (a) CGGC (b) CGC
    (c) GTAATG (d) GTCGAC
  36. Which step is the first in the formation of a double stranded complementary DNA
    (c DNA) target for cloning?
    (a) blunt end ligation
    (b) DNA dependent DNA synthesis
    (c) Restriction enzyme cleavage
    (d) Primer annealing
  37. Cyclic AMP regulates the lactose (lac)operon by
    (a) binding to the operator to turn on transcription
    (b) binding to the lac repressor to prevent transcription
    (c) combining with the catabolitic activator protein (CAP) to form a complex that
    enhances transcriptions upon binding to the promotor .
    (d) combining with the CAP to remove CAP’s inhibition of transcription
  38. A 4 Kb covalently closed circular (ccc) plasmid has 2 (two) sites for a restriction enzyme 1 kb apart. It is partially digested by the enzyme. The maximum number of bands that could be seen on a gel will be
    (a) 1 (b) 2
    (c) 3 (d) 4
  39. In an enzyme reaction the reaction velocity becomes more than double when the
    substrate concentration is doubled. This is possible when the equation governing the kinetics is
    (a) Michelis-Menton Kinetics
    (b) Micheils-Menton Kinetics with substrate inhibition
    (c) Michelis-Menton Kinetics with product inhibition
    (d) Hill Equation
  40. A mixture separated on HPLC gives clearly defined peaks whereas in a manually run column the peaks tend to blend into each other. This is primarily because
    (a) the small size of the packing material used in the HPLC column
    (b) the better control of flow in HPLC
    (c) the use of high pressure in HPLC
    (d) the use of better detection systems in HPLC
  41. Which is true about enzymes,
    (a) they always increase rate of reaction
    (b) they always decrease rate of reaction
    (c) they do not disturb the equilibrium
    (d) Always carry irreversible reactions
  42. Linkage present in cellulose molecule is
    (a) b (1 –> 4) (b) a ( 1 –> 4)
    (c) a (1 –> 6) (d) both (b)and (c)
  43. Blocking action of enzyme through blocking its active site is
    (a) Allosteric inhibition (b) Feedback inhibition
    (c) Competitive inhibition (d) Non-competitive inhibition
  44. Which one of the following is without coenzyme activity ?
    (a) Vitamin E (b) Thiamine
    (c) Biotin (d) Riboflavin
  45. Active transport
    (a) Releases energy (b) Require energy
    (c) Produces energy (d) Produces toxic material
  46. A short length of double stranded DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
    (a) 60 (b) 120
    (c) 240 (d) 480
  47. Which of the following element plays an important role in nitrogen fixation?
    (a) Manganese (b) Molybdenum
    (c) Zinc (d) Copper
  48. Specificity of an enzyme depends upon
    (a) Active site (b) Linear sequence
    (c) Km (d) Turn over number
  49. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylanide gel electrophoresis because
    (a) It helps in solubilization of proteins thereby making it easier to separate
    (b) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density thereby making them move during electrophoresis
    (c) Decreases the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis
    (d) Stabilizes the proteins
  50. In a substitution nucleophilic first order reaction (SN1)the stereochemical outcome is
    (a) Raemisation (b) Inversion of configuration
    (c) Retention of configuration (d) Difficult to predict
  51. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents works by impairing de novo
    purinesynthesis?
    (a) acyclovir (acycloguanosine) (b) 5-fluorouracil (antimetabolite)
    (c) methotrexate (anti folate) (d) hydroxyurea
  52. The largest energy reserve (in terms of kilocalories) in humans is:
    (a) liver glycogen (b) muscle glycogen
    (c) adipose tissue triacylglycerol. (d) muscle protein.
    120 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  53. In the interaction of a hormone with its receptor all of the following are true EXCEPT:
    (a) more than one polypeptide chain of the hormone may be necessary.
    (b) more than one second messenger may be generated.
    (c) an array of transmembrane helices may form the binding site for the hormone.
    (d) hormones released from their receptor after endocytosis could theoretically
    interact with a nuclear receptor.
  54. Some hormone-receptor complexes are internalized by endocytosis. This process may
    involve:
    (a) binding of hormone-receptor complex to a clathrin coated pit.
    (b) recycling of receptor to cell surface.
    (c) formation of a receptosome.
    (d) all of the above
  55. In hypopituitarism it is necessary to maintain the ovarian cycle in female patients. In
    the ovarian cycle:
    (a) GnRH enters the vascular system via transport by a specific membrane carrier.
    (b) corpus luteum rapidly involutes only if fertilization does not occur.
    (c) inhibin works by inhibiting synthesis of a subunit of FSH.
    (d) LH is taken up by corpus luteum and binds to cytoplasmic receptors.
  56. All of the following statements about actin and myosin are true EXCEPT:
    (a) the globular head section of myosin has domains for binding ATP and actin.
    (b) actin is the major protein of the thick filament.
    (c) the binding of ATP to the actin-myosin complex promotes dissociation of actin
    and myosin.
    (d) F-actin, formed by aggregation of G-actin-ATP-MgH complex, is stabilized when
    tropomyosin is bound to it.
  57. Starch digestion is more efficient after heating the starch with water because heating:
    (a) hydrates the starch granules, making them more susceptible to pancreatic
    amylase.
    (b) partly hydrolyses a-1, 6 links.
    (c) converts the linear amylose to branched amylopectin, which resembles glycogen.
    (d) inactivates amylase inhibitors, which are common in the tissues of starchy plants.
  58. Micelles:
    (a) are the same as emulsion droplets.
    (b) form from bile acids at all bile acid concentrations.
    (c) although they are formed during lipid digestion, do not significantly enhance
    utilization of dietary lipid.
    (d) always consist of only a single lipid species.
  59. Certain tissues effect Cl– secretion via a Cl– channel (CFTR protein-cystic fibrosis
    transmembrane regulatory protein). Cholera toxin abnormally opens the channel
    leading to a loss of NaCl. Treatment for cholera and sports drinks for electrolyte
    replacement are fluids high in Na+ and glucose. The presence of glucose enhances NaCl replenishment because:
    (a) absorbing any nutrient causes Na+ uptake.
    (b) glucose prevents Na+ excretion.
    (c) Na+ and glucose are transported in opposite directions.
    (d) glucose is absorbed across intestinal epithelial cells via a Na+ -dependent
    cotransporter.
  60. Of two people with approximately the same weight, the one with the higher basal
    energy requirement would most likely be:
    (a) taller (b) female if the other were male.
    (c) older (d) under less stress.
  61. Basal metabolic rate:
    (a) is not influenced by energy intake.
    (b) may decrease up to 50% during periods of starvation.
    (c) increases in direct proportion to daily energy expenditure.
    (d) is not responsive to changes in hormone levels.
  62. The primary effect of the consumption of excess protein beyond the body’s immediate needs will be:
    (a) excretion of the excess as protein in the urine.
    (b) an increase in the “storage pool” of protein.
    (c) an increased synthesis of muscle protein.
    (d) an enhancement in the amount of circulating plasma proteins.
  63. Kwashiorkor is:
    (a) the most common form of protein-calorie malnutrition in the INDIA.
    (b) characterized by a thin, wasted appearance.
    (c) an adequate intake of total calories but a specific deficiency of protein.
    (d) an adequate intake of total protein but a deficiency of the essential amino acids.
  64. A complete replacement of animal protein in the diet by vegetable protein:
    (a) would be expected to have no effect at all on the overall diet.
    (b) would reduce the total amount of food consumed for the same number of calories.
    (c) might reduce the total amount of iron and vitamin B12 available.
    (d) would be satisfactory regardless of the nature of the vegetable protein used.
  65. Dietary fat:
    (a) is usually present, although there is no specific need for it.
    (b) if present in excess, can be stored as either glycogen or adipose tissue
    triacylglycerol.
    (c) should include linoleic and linolenic acids.
    (d) should increase on an endurance training program in order to increase the body’s energy stores.
  66. For diabetics:
    (a) the only carbohydrate that must be eliminated in the diet is sucrose.
    (b) not all carbohydrate foods raise blood glucose levels at the same rate because
    the glycemic index of all foods is not the same.
    (c) who are normally in good control, stress will have no effect on their blood sugar
    levels.
    (d) a vegetarian diet is the only appropriate choice.
  67. The effects of vitamin A may include all of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) prevention of anemia. (b) serving as an antioxidant.
    (c) cell differentiation. (d) the visual cycle.
  68. Ascorbic acid may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
    (a) iron absorption.
    (b) bone formation.
    (c) wound healing.
    (d) participation in hydroxylation reactions.
  69. The transmembrane portion of a protein spanning the membrane is most likely to be composed of aminoacids that are-
    (a) basic (b) acidic
    (c) glycosylated (d) hydrophobic
  70. All the following compounds are Intermediate of the citric acid cycle except
    (a) Isocitrate (b) Malate
    (c) Pyruvate (d) Succinate
  71. Cellulose is a _ made of many _.
    (a) polypeptide . . . monomers
    (b) carbohydrate . . . fatty acids
    (c) polymer . . . glucose molecules
    (d) protein . . . amino acids
  72. The four main categories of macromolecules in a cell are
    (a) proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids.
    (b) monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccharides, and proteins.
    (c) proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids.
    (d) nucleic acids, carbohydrates, monosaccharides, and proteins.
  73. The characteristic that all lipids have in common is
    (a) they are all made of fatty acids and glycerol.
    (b) none of them is very high in energy content.
    (c) they are all acidic when mixed with water.
    (d) none of them dissolves in water.
  74. How you cellulose and starch are different
    (a) Cellulose molecules are much too large.
    (b) Starch is made of glucose; cellulose is made of other sugars.
    (c) The bonds between sugars in cellulose are much stronger.
    (d) The sugars in cellulose bond together differently than in starch, giving cellulose
    a different shape.
  75. In some places a protein molecule may twist or fold back on itself. This is called
    _ and the coils or folds are held in place by _.
    (a) tertiary structure . . . hydrogen bonds
    (b) primary structure . . . covalent bonds
    (c) secondary structure . . . peptide bonds
    (d) tertiary structure . . . covalent bonds
  76. A hydrophobic amino acid R group would be found where in a protein?
    (a) forming a peptide bond with the next amino acid in the chain
    (b) on the outside of the folded chain, in the water
    (c) on the inside of the folded chain, away from water
    (d) forming hydrogen bonds with other R group
  77. The overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is called the
    (a) double helix. (b) primary structure.
    (c) secondary structure. (d) tertiary structure.
  78. How many different kinds of protein molecules are there in a typical cell?
    (a) Twenty (b) about a hundred
    (c) Thousands (d) billions
  79. The building blocks of nucleic acid molecules are called
    (a) polysaccharides. (b) amino acids.
    (c) fatty acids. (d) nucleotides.
  80. Which of the following do nucleic acids and proteins have in common?
    (a) They are both made of amino acids.
    (b) Their structures contain sugars.
    (c) They are hydrophobic.
    (d) They are large polymers.
  81. Which of the following would probably not be affected when a protein is denatured?
    (a) primary structure (b) secondary structure
    (c) hydrogen bonds (d) tertiary structure
  82. A glucose molecule is to starch as
    (a) a steroid is to a lipid. (b) a protein is to an amino acid.
    (c) a nucleic acid is to a polypeptide. (d) a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid.
  83. Palm oil and coconut oil are more like animal fats than other plant oils. Because they
    __ than other plant oils, they can contribute to cardiovascular disease.
    (a) contain fewer double bonds (b) are less saturated
    (c) contain more sodium (d) are less soluble in water
  84. A shortage of phosphorus in the soil would make it especially difficult for a plant to
    manufacture
    (a) DNA (b) proteins.
    (c) cellulose. (d) fatty acids.
  85. How does DNA differ from RNA?
    (a) DNA is larger.
    (b) One of their nitrogenous bases is different.
    (c) They contain different sugars.
    (d) DNA consists of two strands in a double helix.
  86. Which of the following ranks the molecules in the correct order by size?
    (a) water . . . sucrose . . . glucose . . . protein
    (b) protein . . . water . . . glucose . . . sucrose
    (c) water . . . protein . . . sucrose . . . glucose
    (d) protein . . . sucrose . . . glucose . . . water
  87. On the basis of the principle of complementary base pairing you would expect the
    percentage of _ to be equal the percentage of __.
    (a) A … T (b) A … G
    (c) T … G (d) A … C
  88. Lipids differ from other large biological molecules in that they
    (a) are much larger. (b) are not truly polymers.
    (c) do not have specific shapes. (d) do not contain carbon.
  89. Water is a polar molecule. This means that
    (a) the opposite ends of the molecule have opposite charges.
    (b) water molecules are linear, like a pole.
    (c) water is one of the many hydrophobic molecules.
    (d) the atoms in water have electronegativites which are equal.
  90. Cellular respiration is an example of
    (a) an anabolic pathway. (b) a catabolic pathway.
    (c) bioenergetics. (d) thermodynamics.
  91. Organisms are described as thermodynamically open systems. This means that
    (a) the metabolism of an organism is isolated from its surroundings
    (b) organisms can reverse the increase in entropy.
    (c) organisms acquire energy from their surroundings.
    (d) organisms are capable of circumventing the second law of thermodynamics.
  92. From the equation delta G = delta H -T delta S it is clear that
    (a) a decrease in the system’s total energy will increase the probability of spontaneous change.
    (b) spontaneous change is most probable when the system experiences an increase in entropy.
    (c) increasing the temperature of a system will increase the probability of spontaneous change.
    (d) the capacity of a system to perform work is related to the total energy of the
    system.
  93. An endergonic reaction is characterized by
    (a) its tendency to occur spontaneously.
    (b) the net release of free energy.
    (c) a value for delta G which is positive.
    (d) reactants that are more complex than products.
  94. Cells continue to function only when a metabolic disequilibrium is in effect; cells
    avoid reaching metabolic equilibrium
    (a) because cellular metabolism utilizes only those reactions that are nonreversible.
    (b) because the products of one reaction become the reactants for a different reaction and are unable to accumulate.
    (c) because the majority of important metabolic reactions have delta Gs of zero.
    (d) by limiting the entry of high free energy molecules once they have been
    catabolized.
  95. What must be true if the reaction AB plus CD to AC plus BD occurs spontaneously?
    (a) The delta G of the reaction must be negative.
    (b) the reaction must be exergonic.
    (c) the environments has adequate thermal energy to meet the EA requirement.
    (d) all of the above
  96. What best characterizes the role of ATP in cellular metabolism?
    (a) The release of free energy during the hydrolysis of ATP heats the surrounding
    environment.
    (b) Its free energy is coupled to an endergonic process via the formation of a
    phosphorylated intermediate.
    (c) It is catabolized to carbon dioxide and water.
    (d) The delta G associated with its hydrolysis is positive.
  97. Enzymes are described as catalysts, which means that they
    (a) provide activation energy for the reactions they facilitate.
    (b) change the rate of a reaction without being consumed by the reaction
    (c) stabilize molecules in the transition state.
    (d) elevate the EA barrier so the molecules will not spontaneously degrade.
  98. What best explains the observation of substrate specificity?
    (a) There is a precise compatibility between an enzyme’s active site and the substrate molecule
    (b) Molecules and active sites vary in size; only properly sized molecules can fit.
    (c) Reaction-specific enzymes, such as hydrolases, assume a fit by folding around
    the most numerous substrate molecules.
    (d) Polarity compatibilities; active sites contain electronegative atoms while
    substrates tend to carry slight positive charges.
  99. Sucrase normally catalyses the catabolism of sucrose to glucose and fructose. What, if any, changes could be made to the system so that sucrase could synthesize sucrose from the two products?
    (a) increase the temperature of the system
    (b) alter the concentration of molecules so that sucrase is low and glucose and
    fructose are very high
    (c) selectively denature the enzyme by varying the pH
    (d) phosphorylate either the glucose or the fructose
  100. A plot of enzyme velocity against temperature for an enzyme indicates little activity at 0 degrees celsius and 45 degrees celsius, with peak activity at 35 degrees celsius. The most reasonable explanation for the low velocity at 0 degrees celsius is that at
    this temperature
    (a) the hydrogen bonds that define the enzyme’s active site are unstable.
    (b) at low temperatures the substrate becomes an allosteric regulator.
    (c) the enzyme was denatured.
    (d) there is too little activation energy available.

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CSIR NET Life Science – Biochemistry Chapterwise Practice Questions Free : ANSWER KEY

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1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d)

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