CSIR NET Life Science – Biodiversity and Taxonomy Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022

Practice Here Chapter-wise Questions of Life Science for CSIR NET 2022. Here , In this Chapter-wise Series of Practice Questions, you can Practice the Questions from the Chapter Biodiversity and Taxonomy . This Series is freely Available Only on ExamFlame . After Solving this Complete Practice Questions , your concepts get more cleared and also you will feel confident about this chapter Biodiversity and Taxonomy.

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  • In this practice post there are total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given from the Chapter Cell Biology for CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and write down numbers from 1 to 100 .
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

CSIR NET Life Science – Biodiversity and Taxonomy Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 [Practice Now]

  1. Different groups of seaweeds can generally be distinguished on the basis of
    (a) color.
    (b) size.
    (c) whether they have true leaves, stems, and roots.
    (d) whether they are autotrophic or heterotrophic.
  2. Which of the following are protozoans?
    (a) diatoms, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
    (b) apicomplexans, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates
    (c) amoebas, actinomycetes, ciliates, and flagellates
    (d) flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria, and apicomplexans
  3. In general, how do algae and protozoans differ?
    (a) Protozoans can move, and algae cannot.
    (b) Algae are free-living, and protozoans are parasitic.
    (c) Protozoans are autotrophic, and algae are heterotrophic.
    (d) Algae are photosynthetic, and almost all protozoans are heterotrophic.
  4. Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists, even though most other protists are microscopic unicellular creatures. Some biologists think that at least some seaweeds should be considered plants, not protists. Which of the following would support the latter position?
    (a) Certain seaweeds contain several kinds of specialized cells.
    (b) Certain seaweeds undergo sexual and asexual reproduction.
    (c) Certain seaweeds are found to be prokaryotic.
    (d) Certain seaweeds have very complex cells.
  5. Protozoans called choanoflagellates live in small clusters. They look very much like choanocytes, special feeding cells found in sponges, which are simple animals. Why might biologists find choanoflagellates of great evolutionary interest?
    (a) They show how the very first organisms might have lived.
    (b) They might show how the first heterotrophs lived.
    (c) offer hint about origin of multicellular organism
    (d) They suggest what the first eukaryotes might have been like.
  6. Which of the following is not evidence for the role of endosymbiosis in the origin of
    (a) Chloroplasts have their own DNA.
    (b) The inner membrane of a chloroplast is similar to prokaryotic membranes.
    (c) Mitochondria and chloroplast both are surrounded by two membranes.
    (d) The DNA in the eukaryotic nucleus codes for some enzymes in mitochondria.
  7. Protists are a diverse group of organisms that include
    (a) plants. (b) algae.
    (c) protozoans. (d) b and c
  8. Among the following which statement is NOT a part of principles of current code adopted by XII International Botanical Congress in Leningrad (1975).
    (a) Botanical nomenclature is independent of Zoological nomenclature
    (b) The application of names is determined by means of nomenclature types
    (c) The nomenclature of taxonomic group is based upon priority of publication
    (d) Scientific names of taxonomic group are treated as Italics regardless of their derivation.
  9. Different hybrid forms of the same parentage are designated as-
    (a) Apomicts (b) Nothomorphs
    (c) Race (d) Variety
  10. According to current code for Botanical Nomenclature, the names of class must ends with-
    (a) –opsida (b) –idae
    (c) –ales (d) –aceae
  11. A specimen or element selected by a competent worker form the original material studied by the author to serve as a substitute for the holotype if the latter was not designated in the original publication or is lost or destroyed-
    (a) Lectotype (b) Neotype
    (c) Isotype (d) Paratype
  12. Which technique is routinely used among plants for establishing genetic relationship-
    (a) Amino acid sequence (b) Serological investigation
    (c) Iso-enzyme profiling (d) Chromosome morphology
  13. Numerical taxonomy is also referred as –
    (a) Statistical taxonomy (b) Phenetics
    (c) Computer aided taxonomy (d) All
  14. Which is NOT a characteristic of numerical taxonomy-
    (a) The greater the content of information in taxa of classification and the more
    character on which it is based, the better is classification
    (b) Every character is of equal weight in creating natural taxa.
    (c) Classification is based on percentage (%) similarity coefficient for each OTU.
    (d) Phylogenetic inferences cannot be made form the taxonomic structure of a group
    and from character correlation.
  15. Which technique is not utilized during DNA profiling-
    (a) Restriction digestion (b) Electrophoresis
    (c) Southern blotting (d) RFLP
  16. For DNA fingerprinting the region of DNA used for study are the non-coding regions
    of chromosome known as-
    (a) VNTR (b) RFLP
    (c) RAPD (d) All
  17. Which is major factor contributing to loss of biodiversity?
    (a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
    (b) Introduced species
    (c) Over exploitation of Plants and Animals
    (d) Industrial agriculture and forestry
  18. An International treaty designated to protect wildlife from being threatened by international trade was set up in 1975, it is known as-
    (a) WTO (b) IUCN
    (c) CITES (d) FAO
  19. The diploid generation of the plant life cycle always
    (a) produces spores.
    (b) is called the gametophyte
    (c) is larger and more conspicuous than the haploid stage
    (d) develops from a spore
  20. The diploid sporophyte stage is dominant in the life cycles of all of the following
    (a) a pine tree (b) a dandelion.
    (c) a rose bush (d) a moss
  21. Land plants arose during the
    (a) Ordovician (b) Jurassic
    (c) Cambrian (d) Carboniferous
  22. Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they
    (a) do not produce flowers (b) have cones but no seeds
    (c) have flagellated sperm (d) lack vascular tissue
  23. Deep in the tropical rain forest, a botanist discovered an unusual plant with highly developed vascular tissue, stomata, flagellated sperm, cone-like reproductive structures bearing seeds, and an alternation of generations life cycle. He was very excited about this discovery because it would be rather unusual for a plant to have both
    (a) highly developed vascular tissue and flagellated sperm
    (b) vascular tissue and alternation of generations
    (c) seeds and flagellated sperm
    (d) alternation of generations and seeds
  24. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-
    (a) UV-A (b) UV-B
    (c) UV-A & B (d) UV-B & C
  25. Besides nomenclature of plants in wild, ICBN also gives binomial names for-
    (a) Bacteria & Fungus (b) Fungus
    (c) Fungus & cultivated plants (d) Cultivated plant
  26. ________ are not native to a particular area, and can upset the balance of the ecosystem.
    (a) Exotic species (b) Ultraviolet waves
    (c) Decomposers (d) Reintroduction programs
  27. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?
    (a) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct
    (b) A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the population’s numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years
    (c) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered. An endangered species is already extinct
    (d) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing
  28. Which of these programs is used to preserve a species facing extinction?
    (a) edge effects (b) sustainable use
    (c) natural resources (d) captive breeding
  29. What does this figure illustrate?
    (a) habitat fragmentation
    (b) biodiversity
    (c) extinction
    (d) edge effect
  30. The maximum biodiversity in India occurs at-
    (a) Western Himalayas (b) North East Himalayas
    (c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern Ghats
  31. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used?
    (a) plantae (b) fungi
    (c) protista (d) monera
  32. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general
    (a) Cryptogams (b) bryophytes
    (c) sporophytes (d) thallophytes
  33. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
    (a) fern and Funaria (b) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
    (c) Punica and Pinus (d) Funaria and Ficus
  34. According to botanical nomenclature, which are not allowed-
    (a) Synonyms (b) Antonyms
    (c) Tautonyms (d) Isonyms
  35. The original specimen submitted by author himself is termed as-
    (a) Holotype (b) Paratype
    (c) Lectoype (d) Isotype
  36. Phenetic classification is based on
    (a) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
    (b) observable characteristics of existing organisms
    (c) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
    (d) sexual characteristics
  37. Which of the following is Spermatophyte?
    (a) Bryophyte (b) Pteridophyte
    (c) Thallophyte (d) Gymnosperm
  38. The National herbarium in our country is located in-
    (a) Bombay (b) Calcutta
    (c) Chennai (d) Delhi
  39. All of the following are reasonable hypotheses for the high diversity observed in tropical rain forest except
    (a) Habitat heterogeneity
    (b) Climatic variability
    (c) Niche specialization and resource partitioning
    (d) Population interaction and coevolution
  40. Research on the nothern spotted owl indicates that
    (a) owl population will stabilize if an adequate number of immature forest source habitats can be preserved
    (b) metapopulations must be more closely spaced to compensate for the owl’s limited flight capacity
    (c) setting aside marginal habitat encourages dispersion of owls into areas where reproductive success is unlikely
    (d) the current owl population is too small to disperse into source habitats
  41. A population of strictly monogamous swans consists of 40 males and 10 females. The effective population size for this population is
    (a) 50 (b) 40
    (c) 20 (d) 10
  42. Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a metapopulation’s long-term survival?
    (a) The population is not subdivided into subpropulations
    (b) Regular and extensire movement of individuals among patches makes the subpopulations function essential as a single unit.
    (c) Source and sinks all contain subpopulations
    (d) All subpopulations are connected by corridors
  43. The applications of ecological principles to return a degraded ecosystem to its natural state is characteristic of
    (a) bioremediation
    (b) restoration ecology
    (c) landscape ecology
    (d) conservation ecology
  44. ––––––––––––– is the unit of evolution
    (a) species (b) individual
    (c) community (d) population
  45. Not all species contribute equally to the integrity of an ecological community, with limited time and resources, it would be most reasonable to focus conservation efforts on
    (a) the large vertebrates (b) keystone species
    (c) primary producers (d) exotic species
  46. Populations with low effective sizes are susceptible to all of the following problems except
    (a) inbreeding
    (b) genetic drift
    (c) bottlenecking
    (d) adaptive radiation
  47. Which of the following errors would result in an underestimate of a specie’s MVP?
    (a) underestimating the maximum age of reproduction
    (b) underestimating the average birth rate
    (c) overestimating the death rate
    (d) overestimating the average fecundity
  48. European zebra mussels, accidentally released into lake Erie in 1988, quickly displaced native mussel species. This threat to biodiversity is an example of
    (a) Metapopulation expansion
    (b) exotic introduction
    (c) habitat fragmentation
    (d) over exploitation
  49. Which of these ecosystems has the lowest primary productivity per square meter?
    (a) a salt marsh (b) an open sea
    (c) a coral reef (d) a grassland
  50. The part of chromosome used for DNA fingerprinting is-
    (a) Microsatellite (b) Minisatellite
    (c) Tandem satellite (d) Macrosatellite
  51. International code for botanical nomenclature is not applicable to-
    (a) Gymonosperms (b) Bryphytes
    (c) Algae (d) Cultivated plants
  52. A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered is-
    (a) Artificial system (b) Natural system
    (c) Phylogenetic system (d) Synthetic system
  53. Western blotting is technique for hybridization of-
    (a) Antigen-Antibody (b) DNA-cDNA
    (c) Polyamines (d) Monosaccharides
  54. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is-
    (a) Species (b) Genus
    (c) Order (d) Taxon
  55. Basic unit or smaller taxon of taxonomy is-
    (a) Species (b) Genus
    (c) Family (d) Variety
  56. Sequence of taxonomic categories is-
    (a) Class-Phylum-Tribe-Order-Family-Genus-Species
    (b) Division-Class-Family-Tribe-Order-Genus-Species
    (c) Division-Class-Order-Family-Tribe–Genus–Species
    (d) Phylum-Order-Class-Tribe-Family–Genus–Species
  57. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used?
    (a) plantae (b) fungi
    (c) protista (d) monera
  58. Western blotting is technique for hybridization of-
    (a) Antigen-Antibody (b) DNA-cDNA
    (c) Polyamines (d) Monosaccharides
  59. Basic unit or smaller taxon of taxonomy is-
    (a) Species (b) Genus
    (c) Family (d) Variety
  60. Rhinoceros are found at-
    (a) Kaziranga (b) Nandan Kanan
    (c) Runn of Kutch (d) Nilgiri hills
  61. Besides nomenclature of plants in wild, ICBN also gives binomial names for-
    (a) Bacteria & Fungus (b) Fungus
    (c) Fungus & cultivated plants (d) Cultivated plants
  62. The characteristic type of inflorescence of the Genus Euphorbia is
    (a) Capitulum (b) Catkin
    (c) Cyathium (d) Panicle
  63. The heat that radiates back to the earth from the greenhouse gases results in
    (a) additional global warming (b) thermal inversion
    (c) eutrophication (d) smog
  64. Eutrophication is a kind of
    (a) water pollution (b) air pollution
    (c) land pollution (d) noise pollution
  65. The root cause of Loss of biodiversity is-
    (a) Habitat destruction (b) Increasing Population
    (c) Overexploitation (d) Pollution
  66. Cryopreservation is method mostly applied for conservation of-
    (a) Recalcitrant seeds (b) Orthodox seeds
    (c) Any germplasm (d) Animal embryo
  67. The best cryopreservant for cryo preservation is-
    (a) Liquid Nitrogen (b) Dimethyl sulphoxide
    (c) Solid Co2
    (d) Glycerol
  68. Some species of rotifers consist solely of females. Their method of reproduction is
    described as
    (a) fragmentation (b) asexual
    (c) sperm-stealing (d) parthenogenesis
  69. Members of the phylum Mollusca are recognized on the basis of
    (a) segmentation
    (b) trochophore larva
    (c) the presence of a foot, visceral mass, and mantle
    (d) water vascular system
  70. Cephalopods are the only mollusks
    (a) without a mantle (b) with a closed circulatory system
    (c) that reproduce sexually (d) that have segmented bodies
  71. A marine biologist dredged up a small animal from the bottom of the ocean. It was uniformly segmented, with short, stiff appendages and soft, flexible skin. It had a complete digestive system and an open circulatory system, but no skeleton. Based on this description, this animal sounds most like
    (a) a lancelet (b) a crustacean
    (c) a mollusk (d) a roundworm
  72. Phylum _ includes the largest number of species.
    (a) Mollusca (b) Arthropoda
    (c) Annelida (d) Chordata
  73. The key to the diversity and success of the arthropods is/are
    (a) their trochophore larvae (b) their high reproductive rate
    (c) an open circulatory system (d) jointed appendages
  74. Among the following, which is NOT an endangered animal-
    (a) Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica)
    (b) Asiatic Tiger (Panthera tigris)
    (c) Indian wild ass (Equus heniunus khur)
    (d) Rhesus Monkey (Maccaca mulatta)
  75. Chilka lake harbors high biodiversity of-
    (a) Pisces (b) Aves
    (c) Reptiles (d) Mammals
  76. Cause of diversity loss in small population is-
    (a) Founder effect (b) A demographic bottleneck
    (c) Inbreeding and genetic drift (d) All of the above
  77. Extinction rate is high at-
    (a) Main lands
    (b) Large islands
    (c) Small islands near mainlands
    (d) Small island far from mainlands
  78. Among the following ex-situ conservation method for biodiversity conservation is-
    (a) Biosphere reserve (b) National park
    (c) Gene bank (d) Historical landscape
  79. Among the following phenomenon, which does NOT support the increase in biodiversity-?
    (a) Niche specialization (b) Habitat/Resource partitioning
    (c) Habitat fragmentation (d) Mass extinction
  80. Among the following, which is NOT a characteristic of extinction prone species-
    (a) low reproduction rate and specialized feeding habits
    (b) large in size and feed at high trophic level
    (c) Fixed migratory pattern or Specialized nesting or breeding areas
    (d) Early sexual maturity and short life span
  81. Several categories of risk of species extinction have been defined. A species can be determined as vulnerable if there is considered to be-
    (a) 10% probability of extinction within 100 years
    (b) If the probability is 20% within 20 years or 10 generations
    (c) If within 5 years or two generations the risk of extinction is atleast 50 %
    (d) If the probability is 100% of extinction within 50 generation or 100 years
  82. Habitat may be adversely affected by human influence by-
    (a) Urban and Industrial development (b) Pollution
    (c) Tourism (d) All of the above
  83. In India, the maximum threat of imminent extinction is at-
    (a) Western Ghats (b) Western Himalayas
    (c) Sundervan (d) Thar Desert
  84. The hot spot of biodiversity in India are-
    (a) North and West Himalayas (b) Western Ghat and N E Himalayas
    (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) Sundervan and N.E. Himalayas
  85. Among the following, which is best used for biodiversity characterization-
    (a) Shanon-weaver Index (b) Sociability Index
    (c) Vitality Index (d) All of the above
  86. The single greatest current threat to biodiversity
    (a) greenhouse warming (b) the introduction of exotics
    (c) overhunting (d) habitat destruction
  87. Species diversity tends to decrease with
    (a) increased habitat heterogeneity (b) increased distance from the poles
    (c) increased ocean depth (d) increased fragmentation
  88. Which of the following factors does not play a role in increased biodiversity?
    (a) Complex population interactions
    (b) The introduction of exotic species
    (c) A higher degree of habitat heterogeneity
    (d) Narrower niches
  89. Biodiversity hot spots are
    (a) distributed evenly throughout the biosphere
    (b) regions where there is the potential for high levels of extinction.
    (c) the same for all groups of organisms
    (d) regions where thermophilic species thrive
  90. The metapopulation of a species found in a particular environment
    (a) is the source population
    (b) consists of all the populations of a particular guild
    (c) consists of all the subpopulations of that species
    (d) is the population’s Minimum Viable Potential
  91. In a(n) habitat natality exceeds mortality and in a(n) __ habitat mortality
    exceeds natality.
    (a) fragmented. . .hot spot
    (b) tropical. . .polar
    (c) In both tropical and polar environments there may be regions where with differing
    rates of mortality and natality.
    (d) natural . . .source
    (e) source. . .sink
  92. Which of the follow does not apply to a population with a low effective population size?
    (a) Genetic drift (b) Increased genetic diversity
    (c) Reduced heterozygosity (d) Increased homozygosity
    (e) Inbreeding
  93. Species that have a disproportionately large impact on the maintenance of an ecosystems biodiversity are referred to as
    (a) exotics (b) primary producer
    (c) archaea (d) keystone species
  94. A landscape
    (a) consists of metapopulations.
    (b) is all of the populations found in the same environment
    (c) is composed of the trees and flowers that are planted around human dwellings
    (d) is composed of interacting ecosystems
  95. Edge species
    (a) decrease biodiversity
    (b) only exist in areas that have been altered by humans
    (c) require the unique homogenous edge environment
    (d) may require conditions found in both of the bordering ecosystems
  96. The zoned reserve concept of landscape management calls for
    (a) many small, interconnected nature preserves
    (b) protected areas to be surrounded by transitional areas
    (c) bioremediation
    (d) assisting the movement of individuals from a source to a sink population
  97. You have been asked to participate in the cleanup of an oil spill. You dislike the feel of oil on your hands, so you volunteer to culture Pseudomonas. The aspect of the cleanup that you are participating in is
    (a) biodiversity maintenance (b) preservationism
    (c) bioremediation (d) biophilia
  98. A type of agriculture that involves rotating a crop such as avocados with a leguminous crop such as alfalfa is an example of
    (a) landscape management (b) biodiversity maintenance
    (c) maintaining genetic variation (d) sustainable agriculture
  99. According to botanical nomenclature, which are not allowed-
    (a) Synonyms (b) Antonyms
    (c) Tautonyms (d) Isonyms
  100. The original specimen submitted by author himself is termed as-
    (a) Holotype (b) Paratype
    (c) Lectoype (d) Isotype

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CSIR NET Life Science – Biodiversity and Taxonomy Chapterwise Practice Questions Free : ANSWER KEY

If you find any Question or Answer wrong , then you can freely mention in the comment section below.

01. (b) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (d) 05. (c) 06. (d)
07. (d) 08. (d) 09. (b) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a)
55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (b)
73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c)
79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b)
85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (a)

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