CSIR NET Life Science – Evolutionary Biology Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022

Before going to face any exam, every student must have to solve multiple practice set of that exam. You can also solve Chapter-wise Practice set, so that’s why in this post ExamFlame come up with Chapter-wise Life Science Series Practice Sets for CSIR NET Examination. In this series of Practice Sets we have covered each and every Chapters according to the Latest CSIR NET Life Science Syllabus.

So, After revising the Chapter Practice Here Chapter-wise Questions of Chapter Evolutionary Biology for CSIR NET Life Science for free . These Chapter-wise Practice Questions will make your concepts more crystal Clear and take your preparation to the another level. It also improve your confidence as well as time management that will help you a lot in your examination.

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These Questions are strictly stick to your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that this practice set of Questions will give you same exact feel of your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

Following Instructions to attempt the CSIR NET Life Science – Evolutionary Biology Chapterwise Practice Questions

  • In this practice post there are total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given from the Chapter Evolutionary Biology for CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and write down numbers from 1 to 100 .
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

CSIR NET Life Science – Evolutionary Biology Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022 [Practice Now]


  1. The oldest microfossil so far of age 3.5 billion year ago was-
    (a) Coacervates (b) Eobionts
    (c) Microspheres (d) Cyanobacteria
  2. In his book, “The origin of life (1938)” oparin submitted abiogenesis first bur biogenesis ever since, this theory is named as-
    (a) Spontaneous generation (b) Chemical origin
    (c) Primary abiogenesis (d) Biogenesis
  3. Experimental evidence for molecular evolution of life was provided by-
    (a) Oparin (b) Haldane
    (c) Urey and Miller (d) Syndey fox
  4. During pre-biotic origin of life which chemical played important role in formation of nucleotide specially guanosine-
    (a) CH4
    (b) CO2
    (c) NH3
    (d) HCN
  5. Among the following which molecule till now not synthesized by mimicking the
    environment of pre-biotic environment-
    (a) Ribose (b) Pyrimidines
    (c) Purine (d) L-aminoacids
  6. Among the following the evidence of evolution from biogeography is-
    (a) Embryo development (b) Plate tectonics
    (c) Darwin finches (d) Darwin turtles
  7. Thorns of Bougenwalia plant and tendril of cucurbits are-
    (a) Homologous organs (b) Paralogous organ
    (c) Analogous organ (d) Orthologous organ
  8. Placental mammals such as mouse, wolf, Australian marsupials such as marsupial mouse, Tasmanian wolf shows-
    (a) Parallel evolution (b) Convergent evolution
    (c) Divergent evolution (d) Phyletic evolution
  9. Which of the following is not an vestigial organ in humans-
    (a) Ear muscles (b) Tail vertebra
    (c) Premolar (d) Appendix
  10. Which of the following was earliest form with lipid bilayer and can reproduce by
    budding-
    (a) Coacervates (b) Micro spheres
    (c) protobionts (d) Monospheres
  11. Biogenetic law of Von Baer & Earnst haekel is
    (a) Phylogeny repeats ontogeny
    (b) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
    (c) Ontogene repeats phytogene
    (d) Ontogeny and phylogeny are cyclic
  12. Evidence from fossils records are obtained by calculating age of fossil found in–
    (a) Metamorphic rock (b) Sedimentary rocks
    (c) Igneous rocks (d) Earth crust
  13. Mammals originated during the period-
    (a) Triassic (b) Jurassic
    (c) Cretaceous (d) Permian
  14. First plant having seed habit (Heterosporous Pterodophyte) originated during-
    (a) Silurian (b) Devonian
    (c) Carboniferous (d) Permian
  15. First human appeared during-
    (a) Oligocene (b) Miocene
    (c) Pliocene (d) Pleistocene
  16. Era of reptiles and gymnosperm is-
    (a) Precambrian (b) Paleozoic
    (c) Mesozoic (d) Cenozoic
  17. The correct order of evolution of horse is-
    (a) Mesohippus, Hyracotherium, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.
    (b) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, Hyracotherium, pliohippus, equus.
    (c) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, Hyracotherium, equus.
    (d) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.
  18. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis was refuted by-
    (a) Recapitulation theory (b) theory of Germplasm
    (c) Chromosome theory (d) theory of biogenesis
  19. Mutation theory of Hugo de vries was put forward while working on-
    (a) Drosophila (b) Ancon sheep
    (c) Oenothera amarckiana (d) Antirrhinum
  20. Evolution at genetic level is termed as-
    (a) Microevolution (b) Macroevolution
    (c) Gene Evolution (d) Point mutation
  21. Which of them do not cause variation at genetic level-
    (a) Mutation and recombination
    (b) Gene migration and drift
    (c) Natural selection and artificial selection
    (d) Panmictic population
  22. The raw material for evolution is variability of gene or allele at/in-
    (a) individual level (b) population
    (c) gene pool (d) community
  23. Founder effect is concerned with-
    (a) Gene migration (b) Genetic drift
    (c) Natural selection (d) Mutation
  24. If the individual ar one extreme of the size distribution (eg., larger one ) contribute more offspring to next generation then such selection is called as-
    (a) Directional
    (b) Disruptive
    (c) Cyclic
    (d) Stabilizing
  25. Examples of polymorphism in human is-
    (a) ABO blood group (b) Sickle cell anaemia
    (c) height and Intelligence (d) All of the above
  26. When the preservation of genetic variability is through heterozygote superiority it is termed as-
    (a) Heteropolymorphism (b) Balanced polymorphism
    (c) Stabilizing polymorphism (d) Directional polymorphism
  27. Type of speciation due to polyploidy is-
    (a) Allopathic (b) Parapatric
    (c) Peripatric (d) Sympatric
  28. When the two species are morphologically almost identical but reproductively isolated,
    are termed as-
    (a) Taxonomic species (b) Ecotypes
    (c) Sibling species (d) Morphospecies
  29. Methanogens are found in-
    (a) Marshy areas (b) Flora of cattle rumen
    (c) Biogas fermentor (d) All such places
  30. Each of us is part of the ongoing evolution of the human species. Which of the following occurrences would have the greatest impact on the future biological evolution of the human population?
    (a) You work out every day so that you stay physically fit and healthy.
    (b) A mutation occurs in one of your skin cells.
    (c) You move to Hawaii, the state with the longest life expectancy.
    (d) A mutation occurs in one of your sperm or egg cells.
  31. The processes of ____ and generate variation, and_____ produces adaptation to the environment.
    (a) sexual recombination . . . natural selection . . . mutation
    (b) mutation . . . sexual recombination . . . genetic drift
    (c) genetic drift . . . mutation . . . sexual recombination
    (d) mutation . . . sexual recombination . . . natural selection
  32. Birds with average-sized wings survived a severe storm more successfully than other birds in the same population with longer or shorter wings. This illustrates
    (a) the founder effect (b) stabilizing selection
    (c) artificial selection (d) gene flow
  33. Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in microevolution of a population of humans?
    (a) Only random mating took place in all people that reproduced in North America
    (b) A colony of humans on the moon was isolated from earth
    (c) The incidence of skin cancer in adults over age 40 rose significantly
    (d) Both a and c
  34. Which of the following is the best example of gene flow.
    (a) A polyploid plant develops
    (b) Genes are shuffled by crossing over of chromosomes during meiosis
    (c) An earthquake results in the formation of a canyon splitting a population of toads apart
    (d) Wind blows pollen from one population of plants to another and cross fertilization occurs
  35. Stabilizing selection
    (a) favors intermediate variants in a population
    (b) prevents mutations from occurring
    (c) occurs when some individuals migrate to an area with different environmental conditions
    (d) can only take place in species exhibiting sexual dimorphism
  36. According to the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the frequencies of alleles in a population would remain constant if __ is the only process that affects the gene pool.
    (a) mutation (b) genetic drift
    (c) sexual reproduction (d) microevolution
  37. In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem p2 represents
    (a) the total alleles in the gene pool
    (b) the heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
    (c) the homozygous recessives in the gene pool
    (d) the homozygous dominants in the gene pool
  38. In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, 1 represents
    (a) The total alleles in the gene pool
    (b) the heterozygous dominants in the gene pool
    (c) the homozygous recessives in the gene pool
    (d) all the possible phenotypes in the gene pool
    Practice Test Paper–Evolutionary Biology 291
  39. Two animals are considered of different species if they
    (a) look different (b) cannot interbreed
    (c) live in different h (d) are geographically isolated
  40. Which of the following is the first step in allopatric speciation?
    (a) genetic drift (b) geographical isolation
    (c) polyploidy (d) hybridization
  41. Most of the time, species are identified by their appearance. Why?
    (a) If two organisms look alike, they must be the same species
    (b) This is the criterion used to define a biological species
    (c) If two organisms look different, they must be different species
    (d) This is the most convenient way of identifying species
  42. A new species can arise in a single generation
    (a) through geographical isolation
    (b) in a very large population that is spread over a large area
    (c) if a change in chromosome number creates a reproductive barrier
    (d) if allopatric speciation occurs
  43. The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin’s finches, from a single ancestor is called
    (a) adaptive radiation (b) sympatric speciation
    (c) gradualism (d) nondisjunction
  44. According to the _ model, evolution occurs in spurts; species evolve relatively rapidly, then remain unchanged for long periods.
    (a) nondisjunction (b) gradualist
    (c) adaptive radiation (d) punctuated equilibrium
  45. Sympatric speciation is
    (a) the appearance of a new species in the same area as the parent population.
    (b) initiated by the appearance of a geographical barrier
    (c) the emergence of many species from a single ancestor
    (d) especially important in the evolution of island species
  46. In some animals eg. Axolatal larvae of Ambystoma, the larvae fails to undergo metamorphosis (iodine deficiency). It develops gonads, attains sexual maturity and start reproduction. This is called-
    (a) Parthenogenesis (b) Neoteny or paedogenesis
    (c) Retrogress metamorph (d) Stagnant metamorphosis
  47. Darwin finches from various islands of Galapagos island differed in size and shape of bill due to-
    (a) Mutation (b) Adaptive radiation
    (c) Competition (d) Gene migration
    292 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  48. The enzyme which is occurs in all eukaryotes and show great homology is-
    (a) Cytochrome oxidase (b) Cytochrome c
    (c) Cytochrome b (d) Cytochrome a
  49. The hormone which is almost identical and occurs in all vertebrates is-
    (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine
    (c) Glucagon (d) ACTH
  50. The phylogenictically closed relative of humans are-
    (a) Langurs (b) Apes
    (c) Mokeys (d) Shrews
  51. Which of the following is not darwin’s postulate-
    (a) Struggle for existence
    (b) survival of fittest
    (c) origin of new species
    (d) Inheritence of Acquired character
  52. Which is main cause of genetic variation at individual level-
    (a) Gene mutation (b) Crossing over
    (c) Fertilization & meiosis (d) All if the above
  53. Total gene content of individual population is termed as-
    (a) Genome (b) Gene pool
    (c) Gene bank (d) Genotype
  54. A mutation arising in small population is either fixed or lost just by chance irrespective of its adaptive value is termed as-
    (a) Silent theory (b) Genetic drift
    (c) Artificial selection (d) Directional selection
  55. The main reason for evolution of new species is-
    (a) Geographical isolation (b) Natural selection
    (c) Reproductive barrier (d) Mutation
  56. Biological method for clean up of contaminated soil and ground water is termed as-
    (a) Biorestoration (b) Biomagnification
    (c) Bioremediation (d) Biosorption
  57. Archaebacteria grows at temperature-
    (a) 0-20oC (b) 30-40oC
    (c) 50-120oC (d) All such temperatures
  58. Agar-agar used as solidifying agent in bacteriological media is obtained from-
    (a) Spirulina (b) Gelidium
    (c) Fucus (d) Porphyra
  59. Which of the following organism can carry out the reaction NO2 + oxygen –> NO3 + energy
    (a) Nitrosomanas (b) Pseudomonas rubrum
    (c) Micrococcus denitrificans (d) Nitrobacter
  60. Evolution of modern wheat Triticum aestivum is a result of-
    (a) Mutation (b) Autopolyploidy
    (c) Allopolyploidy (d) Segmental polyploidy
  61. Protoporphyrin, the ancient solar energy trapping molecules are made from-
    (a) Succinic acid & glycine (b) Alanine & glutamic acid
    (c) Lysine & praline (d) Acetyl coA & oxaloacetate
  62. Among the following which do not bring variation at Individual level-
    (a) Gene mutation
    (b) Fertilization
    (c) Meiosis and Crossing over
    (d) Chromosome aberration and Hybridizations
  63. Natural selection will operate under condition-
    (a) Mutational equilibrium
    (b) Random matting
    (c) Differential reproduction
    (d) Equal chances for all genotypes to live and reproduce
  64. Natural selection will not operate if-
    (a) Population is isolated and small
    (b) Mutating population
    (c) Random matting population
    (d) Large population
  65. Distinct and stable phenotypes within species are termed-
    (a) Polymorphic variation (b) Cryptic variation
    (c) Geographical variation (d) Local variation
  66. The main cause of blastogenic and somatogenic variation-
    (a) Endocrine glands (b) Mutation
    (c) Natural selection (d) Panmictic repd.
  67. Crossing of hybrid to its parents is called-
    (a) Parental hybridization (b) Interogressive hybrd.
    (c) Back hybridization (d) Stabilizing hybrd.
  68. Both Transition and Transversion type of mutation is induced by-
    (a) Methyl methane sulfate (b) Nitrous acid
    (c) Base analogues (d) Acradines
  69. Which is best experimental demonstration to prove natural selection-
    (a) Lederberg’s replica replicating
    (b) Kettelwell’s Industrial melanism
    (c) Pastuer’s Swann nech exp
    (d) Urey millers exp
  70. Among the following which is not prerequisite for natural selection-
    (a) Unit capable of reproduction
    (b) Occurrence of heritable variations or differences among units
    (c) Presence of more then one such unit in same environment
    (d) Environmental homeostasis
  71. Which is false about stabilizing selection-
    (a) Constant or unchanging environment
    (b) Introduces heterozygosity
    (c) Favours average
    (d) It tends to arrest variance & environmental changes
  72. Industrial melanism is example of-
    (a) Directional selection (b) Stabilizing Selection
    (c) Cyclic selection (d) Disruptive Selection
  73. Appearance of abnormal characters which were normal in other supposedly ancestral races for example appearance of cervical fistula in man which actually corresponds to gill slits are-
    (a) Race atavism (b) Family atavism
    (c) Atavism of teratology (d) Ontogenic atavism
  74. The ascidian larva on metamorphosis changes into degenerate adult. This is example of-
    (a) Progressive metamorphosis (b) Directional
    (c) Retrogressive (d) Cyclic
  75. C14 is used to determine age of fossils up to-
    (a) 10000 years old (b) 25000
    (c) 45000 (d) 1 lakh year
  76. The clock of rock is usely determined by-
    (a) U238 (b) K40
    (c) Both a & c (d) C14
  77. The transitional fossil form which shows characteristics of two different groups of living organisms is called as-
    (a) Missing link (b) Connecting link
    (c) Living fossil (d) Link species
  78. Monotremes (egg laying mammals) and marsupials (pouched mammals) are restricted to distribution in-
    (a) Asia (b) Australia
    (c) Africa (d) N. America
  79. Among the following hormones, which are present in all animals-
    (a) Pepsin, trypsin (b) Trypsin, Amylase
    (c) Pepsin, amylase (d) Trypsin, secretin
  80. Among the following which is most conserved in all eukaryotes and act as respiratory pigment and accepts electron form H+-
    (a) Ferrodoxin (b) Cytchrome-c
    (c) Cyctochrome c oxidase (d) NAD dehydrogenase
  81. Which hormone is identical and interchangeable and present in all animals is-
    (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenalin
    (c) Somatotropin (d) Insulin
  82. Artificial selection tends to-
    (a) Change gene frequency (b) Decrease biodiversity
    (c) Increase vigor (d) All of the above
  83. Prokaryotes called __ are similar in many ways to eukaryotic organisms.
    (a) archae (b) protozoa
    (c) Cyanobacteria (d) dinoflagellates
  84. Among the following which hormone is almost similar in beef, sheep, pig, whale, horse, rabit and differs only in one to three amino acid position-
    (a) Glucagon (b) Insulin
    (c) Somatotropin (d) Somatostanin
  85. The order of following organisms as phylogenetic closeness to human-
    (a) Chimpanzee > languor > lemur > tree shrews
    (b) Languor > chimpanzee > tree shrews > lemur
    (c) Chimpanzee > languor > tree shrews > Lemur
    (d) Languor > lemur > chimpanzee > tree shrews
  86. The gradual mode of speciation in single lineage in which species diverge in spurts of relatively rapid change which result in increase in species is termed as-
    (a) Punctuated equilibrium (b) Adaptive radiation
    (c) Anagenesis (d) Cladogenesis
  87. Among the following which statement is false about r-selected species-
    (a) Long generation time (b) Large number of offspring
    (c) Short life cycle (d) Tendency to disperse
  88. When an radioactive phosphorus is incorporated into DNA strand, the phospho diester bond generally break after a short while because-
    (a) The bond number of phosphorus decreases
    (b) Phosphorus on radioactive decay converts into sulphur, which has valency of two
    (c) It attacks glycosidic bond
    (d) It breaks hydrogen bond
  89. Among the following which is generally not utilized for establishing phylogenetic relationship between two species-
    (a) % similarity (b) Geographical distance
    (c) Marcoli distance (d) Amino acid sequence
  90. Mangroves are highly productive ecosystem but they are poor in bird diversity because-
    (a) Lack of structural diversity
    (b) Lack of food diversity
    (c) More number of predators that feed on birds
    (d) Lack of breeding place
  91. Among the following which would lead into new species formation-
    (a) Increased resources
    (b) Niche overlapping tolerance
    (c) Niche specialization
    (d) Lack of competition
  92. Origin of life is not possible under present environmental conditions because-
    (a) Hydrogen is absent
    (b) Presence of oxygen
    (c) Lack of source of energy
    (d) Lack of raw material for origin of life
  93. Disaster such as earthquake or fire may reduce the size of population drastically and the genetic make up of the small surviving population is unlikely to be representative of make up of original population the situation is termed as-
    (a) Bottle neck effect (b) Adaptive radiation
    (c) Founder effect (d) Gene migration
  94. A certain organism developed an adaptation as to adapt existing environment but if this adaptation prove useful for some other function as well, it is termed as-
    (a) Co-adaptation (b) Adaptive radiation
    (c) Exadaptation (d) Co-evolution
  95. In a population frequency of a homozygous recessive disease is 16% then the frequency of dominant allele would be-
    (a) 0.84 (b) 0.6
    (c) 0.16 (d) 0.4
  96. In a population individuals having heterozygous phenotype are more favored then homozygous dominant which are more favored then homozygous recessive genotypes, under such condition-
    (a) Recessive alleles would be lost from population
    (b) Dominant alleles would be lost
    (c) Both alleles would remain in population
    (d) Alleles would be lost randomly
  97. A group of species which are phylogenitically closer but they are lacking common ancestor. Such an group is regarded as-
    (a) Monophyletic (b) Polyphyletic
    (c) Paraphyletic (d) Sympatric
  98. After implication of Green Air Act in England which species become virtually absent-
    (a) Biston betularia carbonifera (b) Biston betularia typica
    (c) Drosophila (d) Apes Americana
  99. If an allele is linked to the second allele at other locus which is favorably selected are inherited together. Such an movement of an allele without any evolutionary benefit to next generation is termed as-
    (a) Selective drive (b) Evolutionary drive
    (c) Hitch hiking (d) Linkage
  100. The morphological modification is transferred to next generation without any present
    application which may prove beneficial in changed environment is termed as –
    (a) Exadaptation (b) Pre-adaptation
    (c) Analogous (d) Paralogous

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CSIR NET Life Science – Evolutionary Biology Chapterwise Practice Questions Free : ANSWER KEY

If you find any Question or Answer wrong , then you can freely mention in the comment section below.

01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (a) 06. (c) 07. (a) 08. (a) 09. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b)

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