CSIR NET Life Science – Physiology Chapterwise Practice Questions Free 2022

Physiology is the scientific study of how living things function i.e, it is all about the functioning of the Living body. It is an important  chapter from the CSIR NET point  of view. So, that’s why ExamFlame.com comes with a Chapter-wise Series of Practice Set  for CSIR NET Life Science 2022, which is completely free for you.

In this post you can Practice Questions from the Chapter Physiology  Set which  helps you to increase your Confidence  as well as time management . These Questions are  prepared by our Experts of this field and on the  other  hand   these  questions  match  the Level of your CSIR NET Life  Science  Exam.

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These Questions are strictly follow your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that this practice set of Questions will give you same exact feel of your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

Following Instructions to attempt the CSIR NET Life Science – Physiology Chapter-wise Practice Questions

  • In this practice post there are total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given from the Chapter Physiology for CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and write down numbers from 1 to 100 .
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

CSIR NET Life Science – Physiology Chapter-wise Practice Questions Free 2022 [Practice Now]

  1. Mineral nutrients
    (a) are not essential to plant growth, since all a plant needs is water and CO2.
    (b) contribute little to the weight of a plant.
    (c) enter plants via the stomata.
    (d) are organic nutrients.
  2. Professor Arun claims to have discovered a new macronutrient required for plant
    growth. Most of Professor Arun’s colleagues are skeptical of this claim. Why might
    they consider it unlikely?
    (a) All the nutrients required for plant growth have already been found.
    (b) It is very difficult to prove that a plant needs a certain nutrient.
    (c) Plants need thousands of nutrients; a new one is not significant.
    (d) Any nutrient needed in large amounts has probably been found already.
  3. Soil could be deficient in any of the following nutrients. If you had to supply one of
    them, which would be needed in the smallest amount?
    (a) iron (b) phosphorus
    (c) nitrogen (d) potassium
  4. Which of the following is a symptom of magnesium deficiency?
    (a) yellowing of younger leaves’ prior to yellowing of older leaves.
    (b) enhanced plant growth, since magnesium is toxic to plants.
    (c) chlorosis
    (d) decreased transpiration
  5. Topsoil
    (a) is the relatively inert upper layer of soil.
    (b) does not retain water.
    (c) is a mixture of rock fragments, living organisms, and humus.
    (d) is uniform in texture.
  6. The roots of many aquatic plants have special structures that project above the surface of the water. For example, cypress trees (which grow in swamps) have knees that extend upward above water level. Which of the following is the most logical function of these structures?
    (a) obtaining carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
    (b) nitrogen fixation
    (c) obtaining oxygen for the roots
    (d) transpiration
  7. The clay particles in soil are important because they
    (a) are composed of nitrogen needed by plants.
    (b) eliminate spaces for air and facilitate drainage.

    (c) fill spaces and keep oxygen out of the soil.
    (d) are charged and hold ions needed by plants.
  8. Soil can easily become deficient in _, because these ions are negatively charged
    and do not stick to negatively charged clay particles.
    (a) potassium. (b) calcium.
    (c) magnesium. (d) nitrate.
  9. Fertilizers are usually enriched in
    (a) iron, manganese, and zinc.
    (b) calcium, boron, and carbon.
    (c) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.
    (d) molybdenum, copper, and magnesium.
  10. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil
    (a) convert nitrates to N2
    (b) convert ammonia into ammonium.
    (c) convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
    (d) use nitrates to make amino acids that plants can use.
  11. Nitrogen fixation is
    (a) using nitrogen to build molecules such as proteins and nucleic acids.
    (b) converting nitrogen in the air into a form usable by plants.
    (c) recycling nitrogen from organic matter in the soil.
    (d) absorbing N2 from the soil.
  12. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is
    (a) catalase. (b) nitrogenase.
    (c) reductase. (d) rubisco.
  13. The relationship between legumes and Rhizobium is
    (a) mutualistic. (b) parasitic.
    (c) competitive. (d) commensalism
  14. Mycorrhizae are
    (a) nutrients required by plants in relatively small amounts.
    (b) plants such as mistletoe that parasitize other plants.
    (c) cells that control evaporation of water from leaves.
    (d) associations of roots with beneficial fungi.
  15. The term alternation of generations refers to a plant’s life cycle alternating between
    (a) the production of haploid gametes by meiosis with the production of diploid spores by mitosis.
    (b) a haploid gametophyte generation and a haploid sporophyte generation.
    (c) a haploid gametophyte generation and a diploid sporophyte generation.
    (d) a flower producing generation and a leaf-producing generation.
  16. Self-incompatibility
    (a) works the same way in all plants.
    (b) are all based on the same mechanism of transplant rejection seen in animals.
    (c) maintains variation.
    (d) is the rejection of a graft by a plant.
  17. In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do?
    (a) Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell.
    (b) One fertilizes an egg and the other fertilizes the fruit.
    (c) One fertilizes an egg and the other is kept in reserve.
    (d) One fertilizes an egg and the other fertilizes a cell that develops into stored food.
  18. What is endosperm?
    (a) male reproductive cells in plants
    (b) stored food in a seed
    (c) cells that make up the bulk of a pollen grain
    (d) the fleshy part of a fruit such as an apple or strawberry
  19. The correct arrangement of the meristematic tissue of an embryo is
    (a) a ring of lateral meristem surrounding apical meristem.
    (b) a ring of procambium surrounding a ring of meristem surrounding a ring of
    (c) a ring of hypocotyl surrounding a ring of radicle surrounding a ring of epicotyl.
    (d) a ring of protoderm surrounding a ring of ground meristem surrounding
  20. The scutellum
    (a) is a specialized cotyledon found in certain monocots.
    (b) develops into the seed coat.
    (c) presents a barrier to self-fertilization.
    (d) is a specialized cotyledon found in dicots.
  21. After fertilization, the _ develops into a seed and the _ develops into a fruit.
    (a) ovule . . . ovary
    (b) pollen grain . . . ovule
    (c) ovary . . . ovule
    (d) egg . . . ovule
  22. Plants growing in harsh environments such as deserts, sand dunes, and arctic tundra
    often reproduce vegetatively. This is because
    (a) there are few animals available to pollinate them.
    (b) they are members of plant families that only reproduce asexually.
    (c) fruits would freeze or dry out in these environments.
    (d) vegetative reproduction is not as risky as making seeds.
  23. In contrast to animals, plants exhibit _ and .
    (a) determinate growth . . . persistent morphogenesis
    (b) indeterminate growth . . . are not capable of morphogenesis throughout their lifespan
    (c) indeterminate growth . . . persistent morphogenesis
    (d) growth . . . morphogenesis
  24. Which of the following seedlings will probably bend toward the light?
    (a) tip covered with a cap made of black plastic
    (b) tip separated from base by a gelatin block
    (c) tip separated from base by aluminum foil
    (d) tip cut off and place a block of agar over half of the cut portion; the side with the agar block will bend towards the light
  25. In shoots, branching is inhibited by _ from the tip of a growing shoot, but this effect is countered by _ from the roots.
    (a) cytokinins . . . auxins
    (b) gibberellins . . . ethylene
    (c) auxins . . . cytokinins
    (d) gibberellins . . . abscisic acid
  26. As leaf lettuce matures, the basal edible leaves suddenly send up a tall flowering shoot. After the plant bolts like this, it no longer produces broad, tasty leaves. Suppose you wanted to prevent bolting so that you could harvest lettuce longer. You might look for some way to interfere with the effects of
    (a) abscisic acid. (b) gibberellins.
    (c) cytokinins. (d) ethylene.
  27. Seeds of many desert plants will not germinate until a heavy rain washes away their
    (a) phytochrome. (b) abscisic acid.
    (c) gibberellins. (d) auxins.
  28. The abscission layer
    (a) causes a shoot to bend toward light.
    (b) secretes cytokinin.
    (c) is the location of the biological clock in a plant.
    (d) is where a leaf separates from a stem.
  29. When a plant structure such as a leaf is injured, it produces __, which may cause
    the part to age and drop off.
    (a) cytokinins (b) ethylene
    (c) auxins (d) abscisic acid
  30. Once a flower is pollinated, changes occur that make it less attractive to insects. Its petals, for example, shrivel and fall off. Pollination must
    (a) increase the output of cytokinins in the flower.
    (b) block the flow of auxins from the roots.
    (c) trigger the release of ethylene in the flower.
    (d) increase the formation of phytochrome, which sets the biological clock.
  31. In the autumn, the amount of _ increases and the amount of _ decreases in fruit and leaf stalks, causing a plant to drop fruit and leaves.
    (a) ethylene . . . auxin
    (b) gibberellin . . . abscisic acid
    (c) cytokinin . . . abscisic acid
    (d) auxin . . . ethylene
  32. Plant hormones act by affecting the activities of
    (a) genes. (b) genes and enzymes.
    (c) enzymes. (d) genes, membranes, and enzymes.
  33. _____ appear to be responsible for gravitropism.
    (a) Statoliths (b) phytochromes
    (c) Gibberellins (d) Cytokinins
  34. A rapid loss of water in specialized cells in the sensitive plant Mimosa pudica causes
    (a) the plant to bend toward light.
    (b) stomatal opening so photosynthesis can begin.
    (c) stress that results in the production of PR proteins.
    (d) leaves to droop.
  35. A biological cycle with a period of about 24 hours is called
    (a) thigmotropism. (b) a circadian rhythm.
    (c) photoperiod. (d) abscission.
  36. An Rajasthani hunter was worried about being attacked by grizzly tigers, so he left the lights in his cabin on all the time. Plants near the cabin flowered a month early. Which of the following best explains this?
    (a) They must have been long-night plants.
    (b) The lights must have emitted far-red light.
    (c) They must have been long-day plants.
    (d) They must have been short-day plants.
  37. Most plants flower when
    (a) the soil reaches a certain temperature.
    (b) the days are of right length.
    (c) a certain number of days have passed since they last flowered.
    (d) the nights are of right length.
  38. A certain short-day plant flowers when days are less than 12 hours long. Which of the following would cause it to flower?
    (a) a 9-hour night and 15-hour day with 1 minute of darkness after 7 hour.
    (b) an 8-hr day and 16-hour night with a flash of white light after 8 hr.
    (c) a 13-hour night and 11-hour day with 1 minute of darkness after 6 hr.
    (d) a 12-hour day and 12-hour night with a flash of red light after 6 hr.
  39. A chemical change in a substance called phytochrome
    (a) causes a plant to bend toward light.
    (b) triggers fruit drop.
    (c) enables a plant to respond to the presence of light.
    (d) is responsible for gravitropism.
  40. Which of the following tissues produces voluntary body movements?
    (a) smooth muscle (b) simple cuboidal epithelium
    (c) cardiac muscle (d) skeletal muscle
  41. Which of the following best illustrates homeostasis?
    (a) All the cells in the body have much the same chemical composition.
    (b) Cells of the skin are constantly worn off and replaced.
    (c) When blood CO2 increases, you breathe faster and get rid of CO2
    (d) All organs are composed of the same four kinds of tissues.
  42. How does a gastrovascular cavity differ from an alimentary canal? The gastrovascular cavity
    (a) stores food but does not digest it.
    (b) absorbs food molecules but does not produce hydrolytic enzymes.
    (c) has only a single opening.
    (d) functions in digestion but not absorption.
  43. In humans, most nutrient molecules are absorbed by the
    (a) stomach. (b) liver.
    (c) small intestine. (d) large intestine.
  44. The largest variety of digestive enzymes function in the
    (a) large intestine. (b) oral cavity.
    (c) stomach. (d) small intestine.
  45. Which of the following is not an essential nutrient for a human?
    (a) linoleic acid, a fatty acid (b) glucose, a monosaccharide
    (c) methionine, an amino acid (d) ascorbic acid, a vitamin
  46. Individuals lacking adequate levels of enterogastrone would have the greatest difficulty digesting
    (a) fats. (b) proteins.
    (c) carbohydrate (d) nucleic acids.
  47. It is important to get some vitamin B-1 every day, but it is all right if intake of
    vitamin A varies a bit. Why?
    (a) Vitamin B-1 is an essential nutrient, and vitamin A is not.
    (b) Vitamin A can be stored by the body, but vitamin B-1 cannot.
    (c) The body needs much larger amounts of vitamin B-1 than vitamin A.
    (d) The body requires vitamin B-1, but vitamin A is just an “extra.”
  48. How would you expect the digestive system of a hawk, a carnivore, to compare with that of a sparrow, a seed-eater?
    (a) The hawk would have a larger gastrovascular cavity.
    (b) The sparrow’s digestive system would be longer.
    (c) The hawk would have a gizzard, but the sparrow would not.
    (d) The hawk digestive system would be longer.
  49. Gallstone surgery sometimes requires that the gallbladder be remove. Patients are
    then advised to avoid ingesting large amount of fat because
    (a) the gallbladder makes bile, which is necessary for fat emulsification.
    (b) without the bile produced by the gallbladder, fats cannot be enzymatically hydrolyzed.
    (c) the gallbladder produces the hormone enterogastrone.
    (d) the gallbladder stores large quantities of bile, releasing it when necessary.
  50. Researchers provided radioactively labeled food to a dog, and traced the movement of absorbed molecules. Which type of molecule would move along a different path than all the others?
    (a) carbohydrates (b) proteins
    (c) nucleic acids (d) fats
  51. The cardiac sphincter surrounds the cardiac orifice. If this sphincter failed to properly constrict, there might be a problem with
    (a) regurgitation of food into the esophagus.
    (b) movement of the bolus into the trachea rather than the esophagus.
    (c) rapid emptying from the stomach to the small intestine.
    (d) rapid emptying from the small intestine to the large intestine.
  52. Which of the following might make the most effective antiulcer medication? A chemical that
    (a) stimulates parietal cells of the gastric glands.
    (b) kills bacteria in the stomach.
    (c) inhibits mucous cells of the gastric glands.
    (d) stimulates chief cells of the gastric pits.
  53. The lungs consist of many small air sacs and blood vessels, which greatly increase surface area and improve the transfer of substances through their walls. The structures in the digestive system similar in function to these air sacs and capillaries are the
    (a) villi. (b) colon and rectum.
    (c) gastric glands. (d) high-density lipoproteins.
  54. During some types of antibiotic treatments, patients often experience diarrhoea
    (a) antibiotics are toxic to the colon’s epithelium as well as to bacteria.
    (b) the bacterial flora of the large intestine digest fiber, which otherwise would
    create osmotic pressure and result in decreased water reabsorption.
    (c) antibiotics interfere with the vitamin absorption process normally occurring
    within the large intestine.
    (d) after intestinal bacteria have been killed, an unusually large amount of water is
  55. Imagine that you have eaten a meal containing the following nutrients. Which would not have to be digested before being absorbed?
    (a) protein (b) polysaccharide
    (c) disaccharide (d) amino acid
  56. Which of the following best describes an artery?
    (a) carries blood away from the heart
    (b) carries oxygenated blood
    (c) contains valves
    (d) has thin walls
  57. In a fish, blood circulates through , while in a mammal, it circulates through .
    (a) two circuits . . . four circuits (b) one circuit . . . two circuits
    (c) four circuits . . . two circuits (d) one circuit . . . four circuits
  58. A recording of the electrical activity of a patient’s heart shows that the atria are
    contracting regularly and normally, but every few beats the ventricles fail to contract. Which of the following is probably functioning improperly?
    (a) AV node (b) semilunar valve
    (c) coronary artery (d) pacemaker
  59. Stroke occurs when
    (a) the pacemaker becomes defective, producing an irregular heartbeat.
    (b) a blood clot enters and blocks one of the coronary arteries.
    (c) a blood clot dislodges from a vein and moves into the lung, where it blocks a
    pulmonary artery.
    (d) a blood clot enters the cerebral circulation, blocking an artery and causing the
    death of brain tissue.
  60. An advantage of gas exchange in water, compared with gas exchange in air, is that
    (a) water usually contains a higher concentration of oxygen than air.
    (b) water is easier to move over the respiratory surface.
    (c) the respiratory surface does not dry out in water.
    (d) ventilation requires less energy in water.
  61. In the blood, bicarbonate ions
    (a) help transport oxygen.
    (b) act as buffers to guard against pH changes.
    (c) are transported by hemoglobin.
    (d) attach to numerous carbon dioxide molecules, keeping them from solution.
  62. Most oxygen is carried by the blood . Most carbon dioxide is carried by the blood.
    (a) attached to hemoglobin . . . in the form of bicarbonate ions
    (b) dissolved in the plasma . . . dissolved in the plasma
    (c) in the form of H+ ions . . . in the form of bicarbonate ions
    (d) attached to hemoglobin . . . attached to hemoglobin
  63. Which of the following is an endotherm?
    (a) mouse (b) iguana
    (c) frog (d) trout
  64. As filtrate passes through the long loop of Henle, salt is removed and concentrated in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla. (a)Because of this high salt concentration, the nephron is able to
    (a) excrete the maximum amount of salt.
    (b) neutralize toxins that might accumulate in the kidney.
    (c) control the pH of the interstitial fluid.
    (d) establish a hypertonic interstitial medullary concentration.
  65. Uric acid is the nitrogenous waste excreted by birds, insects, and many reptiles. An
    advantage of excreting uric acid is that it _ , but a disadvantage is that it __ .
    (a) saves water . . . costs energy
    (b) saves energy . . . is highly toxic
    (c) is not very toxic . . . wastes a lot of water
    (d) is much more soluble in water than other wastes . . . costs energy
  66. On a cold day, blood vessels in the skin
    (a) dilate, allowing blood to keep the skin warm.
    (b) constrict, forcing blood to flow through vessels in the skin.
    (c) constrict, reducing heat loss from blood at the surface.
    (d) dilate, causing blood to pass through the cold skin more quickly.
  67. The animals in which of these pairs have similar problems regulating water balance?
    (a) freshwater fish and saltwater fish
    (b) land animal and freshwater fish
    (c) osmoconformer and freshwater fish
    (d) saltwater fish and land animal
  68. Which would have the toughest time surviving over the long term in the environment
    (a) an osmoconformer in seawater
    (b) an endotherm in a warm environment
    (c) an ectotherm in a cold environment
    (d) an ectotherm in a warm environment
  69. Most aquatic animals excrete ammonia, while land animals excrete urea or uric acid.
    What is the most likely explanation for this difference?
    (a) They have different diets.
    (b) Land animals can get the energy needed to make urea or uric acid.
    (c) Ammonia is very toxic, and it takes lots of water to dilute it.
    (d) Land animals cannot afford the energy needed to make ammonia.
  70. Which of the following hormones has the broadest range of targets?
    (a) ADH (b) TSH
    (c) epinephrine (d) ACTH
  71. Every time you eat a cookie or candy bar, your blood sugar increases. This triggers
    an increase in the hormone
    (a) insulin (b) epinephrine.
    (c) adrenocorticotropin(ACTH). (d) glucagon.
  72. Every hormone
    (a) is a protein.
    (b) is produced in response to stress.
    (c) is under the control of the pituitary gland.
    (d) enters a cell and interacts with DNA.
  73. Since most chemical signals are unable to pass through the plasma membrane, the
    cellular action they initiate results from
    (a) ligand binding.
    (b) the activation of a signal transduction pathway.
    (c) direct stimulation of the cell’s DNA.
    (d) the enzymatic behaviour of the signal molecule.
  74. Which of the following hormones have antagonistic (opposing) effects?
    (a) thyroxin and calcitonin
    (b) insulin and glucagon
    (c) growth hormone and epinephrine
    (d) ACTH and glucocorticoids
  75. What is the role of a second messenger in hormone action?
    (a) It signals a cell to secrete a hormone.
    (b) It informs a gland as to whether its hormones are having an effect.
    (c) It relays a hormone’s message inside a target cell.
    (d) It stops hormone action when it is no longer needed.
  76. When the levels of juvenile hormone (JH) are maintained at artificially high levels,
    insects will
    (a) be unable to molt.
    (b) bypass some larval stages and pupate prematurely.
    (c) molt more frequently.
    (d) be unable to advance to a pupal stage.
  77. The action of a local regulator is illustrated when
    (a) prostaglandins released from the placenta alter the excitability of the muscle of the uterus.
    (b) histamine promotes the secretion of hydrochloric acid by stomach cells.
    (c) the relaxation of arterial smooth muscle caused by nitric oxide.
    (d) all of the above.
  78. Some glands produce hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands. Which of the
    following hormones specifically acts to trigger secretion of hormones by another
    endocrine gland?
    (a) thyroid hormone (T3 and T4)
    (b) progesterone
    (c) adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)
    (d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  79. How is the level of thyroxin in the blood regulated?
    (a) Thyroxin stimulates the pituitary to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
    (b) TSH inhibits secretion of thyroxin from the thyroid gland.
    (c) Thyroxin stimulates the hypothalamus to secrete TRH.
    (d) Thyroxin and TSH inhibit secretion of TRH.
  80. The endocrine and nervous systems share which of the following in common?
    (a) Both utilize feedback.
    (b) Several chemicals serve as both hormones and neurotransmitters.
    (c) Nerve impulses can cause endocrine glands to release hormone.
    (d) all of the above.
  81. It takes much longer for sex hormones and other steroids to produce their effects
    than it takes nonsteroid hormones. Why?
    (a) Steroids are bigger, slower molecules.
    (b) Steroids usually must be carried longer distances by the blood.
    (c) Steroids cause target cells to make new proteins, which takes time.
    (d) Steroids must relay their message via a second messenger.
  82. Which disorder is correctly matched with its cause?
    (a) pituitary dwarfism and hyposecretion of growth hormone
    (b) infant cretinism and hypersecretion of thyroxin
    (c) low blood calcium and hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
    (d) acromegaly and hyposecretion of growth hormone
  83. Injections of a hormone are sometimes given to strengthen contractions of the uterus during childbirth. What hormone might this be?
    (a) adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)
    (b) thyroxin
    (c) oxytocin
    (d) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  84. Type I diabetes mellitus
    (a) an autoimmune disease that develops following immune attack on pancreatic
    (b) a commonly seen in overweight individuals older than forty.
    (c) is treated by improving insulin receptor efficiency rather than by giving insulin.
    (d) is the most common form of the disease; more than 90% of all diabetics have
    type I.
  85. Jet lag occurs when a person moves rapidly from one time zone to another, causing conflict between the body’s biological rhythm and the new cycle of light and dark. Some scientists suspect that jet lag may result from disruption of a daily hormone cycle. Which of the following hormones do you think is the most likely suspect?
    (a) epinephrine (b) insulin
    (c) melatonin (d) estrogen
  86. As a young girl, Sunita suffered a head injury that damaged her pituitary. An injury
    to the pituitary is particularly serious because of all the functions controlled by this
    gland As Sunita got older, she and her doctors found that all of the following except_ were affected.
    (a) metabolic rate (b) blood sugar level
    (c) her menstrual cycle (d) milk production
  87. A hormone from the parathyroid gland works in opposition to a hormone from the
    _ to regulate _ .
    (a) posterior pituitary . . . metabolic rate
    (b) thyroid gland . . . blood calcium
    (c) pancreas . . . water reabsorption
    (d) adrenal medulla . . . blood calcium
  88. Diabetes insipidus is an inherited endocrine malfunction (unrelated to diabetes
    mellitus) in which the kidneys fail to reabsorb normal amounts of water. Victims of
    this disease produce gallons of urine each day, and their kidneys soon wear out.
    Treatment of this disease involves replacing a missing hormone. Which of the following do you think it is?
    (a) glucagon (b) epinephrine
    (c) glucocorticoids (d) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  89. Because only the _ gland uses iodine to make its hormones, radioactive iodine is often used as a treatment for tumors of this gland.
    (a) pituitary (b) pancreatic
    (c) thyroid (d) adrenal
  90. Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
    (a) budding (b) fission
    (c) fragmentation (d) hermaphroditism
  91. A peak in _ triggers ovulation on about the _ day of the monthly cycle.
    (a) LH . . . seventh
    (b) FSH . . . second
    (c) LH . . . fourteenth
    (d) estrogen . . . twentieth
  92. External fertilization occurs mostly in
    (a) land animals.
    (b) insects.
    (c) aquatic animals.
    (d) animals that reproduce asexually.
  93. On its way to fertilize a human egg, a sperm cell does not have to pass through which of the following?
    (a) oviduct (b) vagina
    (c) ovary (d) vas deferens
  94. Which of the following hormones is the first to increase significantly every 28 days or so and initiates the ovarian cycle?
    (a) progesterone
    (b) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    (c) estrogen
    (d) lutenizing hormone (LH)
  95. After ovulation occurs, the empty follicle
    (a) can be recycled to produce more eggs.
    (b) changes into the corpus luteum and makes hormones.
    (c) quickly degenerates.
    (d) immediately initiates menstruation.
  96. Oogenesis in comparison to spermatogenesis is somewhat unusual in humans in that
    (a) cytokinesis is unequal during the meiotic divisions.
    (b) the sequence from primary oocyte to ovum is interrupted by a relatively long
    resting period.
    (c) the first meiotic division is not completed unless reactivated by a hormone.
    (d) all of the above
  97. Birth control pills contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone. How might these
    hormones prevent pregnancy?
    (a) They trigger premature ovulation, before an egg is mature.
    (b) They cause the lining of the uterus to be sloughed off.
    (c) They cause the corpus luteum to degenerate.
    (d) They keep the pituitary from secreting FSH and LH, so ovulation does not occur.
  98. Pregnancy tests detect a hormone hCG in a woman’s urine that is present only when an embryo is developing in her uterus. This hormone is secreted by
    (a) the ovary. (b) the embryo.
    (c) a follicle. (d) the endometrium.
  99. In many mammals the testes are located outside the abdominal cavity within the
    scrotum because
    (a) the elevated pressure within the abdominal cavity would collapse the small
    passage ways within the testes.
    (b) this location allows for a shorter pathway to the urethra.
    (c) blood flow to the scrotum is not interrupted during erection.
    (d) sperm are unable to properly mature at the higher temperatures found within
    the abdominal cavity.
  100. Because the genetic composition of the foetus is not identical to that of the mother, it is somewhat surprising that the foetus is not rejected as a foreign body. It appears that this is because
    (a) the embryo does not expresses paternal antigens on its cells until after birth.
    (b) the embryo produces signal molecules that turn off the mother’s immune system for the 9 months of pregnancy.
    (c) a protective layer, the trophoblast, surrounds the embryo and prevents direct
    contact with maternal tissue.
    (d) special maternal immune cells produce antigenic modifier proteins (AMPs), which mask the foreign antigens.

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CSIR NET Life Science – Physiology Chapterwise Practice Questions Free : ANSWER KEY

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1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b)
19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b)
55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (c)
67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c)
79. (d) 80. (d) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (a)
85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (d)
99. (d) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)

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