CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 Free 2022 [Practice Now]

Test Series gives you the effective output of your preparation for any exam. It will improve your confidence as well as time management that will help you a lot in your examination. So, Here in this post we come up with CSIR NET Life Science Test Series where under this Series of Test there are total 10 Test Series for practice.

CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 Free 2022 [Practice Now]

The Syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET Exam contains topics majorly Molecules and their Interaction Relevant to Biology , Cell Communication and Cell Signaling , Cellular Organization , Fundamental Processes , System Physiology – Animal , Developmental Biology , Inheritance Biology , System Physiology – Plant , Diversity of Life Forms , Applied Biology , Ecological Principles , Evolution and Behavior , Methods in Biology.

These Questions are strictly follow your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that these test series will give you same exact feel your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

How to attempt the CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 ?

Follow the Instructions bulleted below to attempt CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 :

  • In this Test total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given below , where PART – A contains 30 MCQs and on the other hand PART – B contains 70 MCQs regarding CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and divide into two Sections as PART – A and PART – B then write down numbers from 1 to 30 in PART – A and 1 to 70 in PART – B.
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

If you find any of the Question or Answer wrong , then you can freely mention in the comment section below.

CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 Free 2022 [Practice Now]

PART – A >>

1. If a pendulum with a time period ‘T’ is placed on moon then its time period will-

  • (a) Increase
  • (b) Decrease
  • (c) Unchanged
  • (d) Infinity

2. When the canon is fired, it will move-

  • (a) Front
  • (b) Back
  • (c) Randomly
  • (d) not moves

3. Soldiers are not allowed to pass in synchronized march over a bridge because-

  • (a) It produces more noise
  • (b) Bridge may break due to resonance
  • (c) Uniform force distribution will break the bridge
  • (d) Center of mass of bridge will increase

4. If the cylinder of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is transformed into disc with radius ‘2r’, then its moment of inertia will be-

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 1/2
  • (d) 1/4

5. On putting a thin water film over a glass plate it becomes more transparent to light because-

  • (a) Lesser would be reflection
  • (b) Lesser will be refraction
  • (c) Trapped air increase transparency
  • (d) It does not happens

6. For equilibrium reaction the value for Delta G will be

  • (a) Zero
  • (b) Negative
  • (c) Positive
  • (d) Infinity

7. The tetrahedral geometry of carbon is best explained by-

  • (a) Monochoro methane
  • (b) Dichloro methane
  • (c) Choloroform
  • (d) Carbon tetrachloride

8. About Haber’s process for ammonia production, the false statement is-

  • (a) It is second order reaction
  • (b) Slow at room temperature
  • (c) High pressure is required
  • (d) Al2O3 is used as catalyst

9. On increasing the NaCl into water it boiling point decreases because-

  • (a) Due to more energetic molecules
  • (b) Weak H-bonding
  • (c) More collision between molecules
  • (d) Activation energy is decreased

10. The necessary condition for reaction to be spontaneous is-

  • (a) H – ve & S + ve
  • (b) H – ve & S – ve
  • (c) H + ve & S + ve
  • (d) H – ve & S + ve

11. Moon does not have atmospheric gases-

  • (a) Gravity is not sufficient to hold gases
  • (b) Speed of rotation is very high
  • (c) Water and plants are absent
  • (d) Absence of sheathing ozone layer

12. Earth is slightly inclined on its axes, if axis of rotation is made perpendicular then major effect will be on-

  • (a) Day & night
  • (b) Seasons
  • (c) Tides of ocean
  • (d) Rotation of earth

13. The magnetic field around earth is a result of –

  • (a) Structure of earth crust
  • (b) Plate faults
  • (c) Motion of liquid mantle
  • (d) Motion in liquefied core

14. Which of them is a result of process of sedimentation-

  • (a) Coal
  • (b) CaCO3
  • (c) Igneous rocks
  • (d) Granite

15. Among the following which radioisotope is routinely used for determination of age of fossils-

  • (a) P 32
  • (b) S 35
  • (c) C 14
  • (d) O 18

16. Convert the binary number 1101.101 into decimal number-

  • (a) 13.625
  • (b) 13.5
  • (c) 13.62
  • (d) 13.26

17. Which of them is not programming language-

  • (a) BASIC
  • (b) COBOL
  • (c) PASCAL
  • (d) LOTOUS

18. The clock speed in computer is usually measured in-

  • (a) Bytes
  • (b) Seconds
  • (c) Hertz
  • (d) RAM

19. Bug, in computer terminology means-

  • (a) Logical error
  • (b) Syntax error
  • (c) Organism effecting computer
  • (d) High level Programming

20. Consider the following programme and write the result that will print at end of program

If A=4 and B=5
Do While A =/= 0
If A >= B
A=A–B
Else
B=B-A
EndIf
PRINT A, B

  • (a) 0, 0
  • (b) 0, 1
  • (c) 1, 1
  • (d) 1, 0

21. If there is double bond between A & T and triple bond between GC, then which sequence will be most stable at higher temperature-

  • (a) ATTGTACCAAA
  • (b) AATTATATATA
  • (c) AGCAGAGAGTT
  • (d) AGGCCGGCCCTA

22. If a tall pea plant is crossed with pure dwarf pea plant, all F1 progenies were tall, in subsequent generation after selfing of F1 generation progeny, the ratio of tall to dwarf plant will be-

  • (a) 1:1
  • (b) 1:2:1
  • (c) 3:1
  • (d) All tall

23. White blood cells (WBC) have major function as-

  • (a) Defensive role
  • (b) Respiration
  • (c) Tumor suppressor
  • (d) Phagocytosis of cell debris

24. Rules stating that as we move toward the polar region from tropics the size of organism increases-

  • (a) Allen’s rule
  • (b) Bergman’s rule
  • (c) Fischer rule
  • (d) Copes rule

25. During photosynthesis evolution of oxygen is from-

  • (a) Water
  • (b) CO2
  • (c) Glucose
  • (d) Chlorophyll

26. Maximum numbers of lines producing symmetrical planes from a regular hexagon-

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 8

27. If P=(1,2), Q=(–2, –10) & R=(1, m) and PQ+QR = Minimum, then the value of ‘m’ will be-

  • (a) + 6
  • (b) – 6
  • (c) + 8
  • (d) – 8

28. Twenty-Five student participate in competition, marks obtained by first two students are 6 & 10. Each subsequent student gains an average of preceding students, then the marks obtained by the 100 student will be-

  • (a) 6
  • (b) 8
  • (c) 10
  • (d) 16

29. How many boxes of size 2 × 2 × 4 can be fitted in a box of size 11 × 8 × 20-

  • (a) 100
  • (b) 110
  • (c) 120
  • (d) 220

30. Integration of below mentioned equation would bee d/dx (ex sin2θ) + d/dx [ex sin2(θ-π/2)]

  • (a) 2ex(sinθ – cosθ)
  • (b) 2ex(sinθ)
  • (c) 2ex(cosθ)
  • (d) ex(sinθ – cosθ)

Also Check : CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCES (Sure Success Series) Book for GATE, UGC – NET, CSIR, SLET and other competitive exams

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CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCES (Sure Success Series) Book for GATE, …

PART-B >>

1. In Human number of linkage groups present in male is:

  • (a) 21
  • (b) 22
  • (c) 23
  • (d) 24

2. Holiday junction is observed during:

  • (a) Mitosis
  • (b) Interphase
  • (c) Recombination
  • (d) DNA Repair

3. Layer of Atmosphere possessing ozone is-

  • (a) Stratosphere
  • (b) Mesosphere
  • (c) Ionosphere
  • (d) Troposphere

4. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-

  • (a) UV-A &B
  • (b) UV-B
  • (c) UV-B & C
  • (d) UV-A & C

5. Major hot spot of biodiversity in India are-

  • (a) Andaman & western ghats
  • (b) Eastern Ghats & Western Himalayas
  • (c) Western ghats & N.E Himalayas
  • (d) North East and Western Himalayas

6. In humans, XX males and XY Females are rare, such rare sexes are due to-

  • (a) Deletion of X chromosome
  • (b) Deletion of Y chromosome
  • (c) XY translocation
  • (d) Duplication of X chromosomes

7. The major difference in PS-I and PS-II found in Chloroplast are-

  • (a) Position on lamellae
  • (b) Chlorophyll a
  • (c) Position of electron carriers
  • (d) Energy harvesting

8. Testosterone hormone necessary for spermatogenesis is secreted by-

  • (a) Leydig cells
  • (b) Sertoli cells
  • (c) Spermatozoa
  • (d) Cowpers gland

9. The major site of attack by HIV-virus on immune system is-

  • (a) MHC
  • (b) B- Lymphocytes
  • (c) T- Lymphocytes
  • (d) Macrophages

10. Rarely there is occurrence of gill clefts in higher animals, this shows-

  • (a) They may be useful for that organism
  • (b) Ancestral returns of that character
  • (c) Favorable mutation in organism
  • (d) Retrogressive Evolution

11. A single base pair mutation occurs in strand CATTACCG, its complementary strand had a sequence GTTATGGC. It means mutation has changed base pair-

  • (a) A –> T
  • (b) T –> T
  • (c) T –> A
  • (d) A –> A

12. Crossing over occurs during-

  • (a) Mitotic Metaphase
  • (b) Meiotic Metaphase
  • (c) Mitotic Prophase
  • (d) Meiotic Prophase

13. Maize has 10 pairs of chromosome, what will be number of chromosome and chromatids at Metaphase II-

  • (a) 10 & 10
  • (b) 10 & 20
  • (c) 20 & 40
  • (d) 5 & 10

14. In plants IAA causes cell elongation due to-

  • (a) Increase in pH of Apoplast
  • (b) Increase in pH of cytoplasm
  • (c) Decrease in pH of Apoplast
  • (d) Increase in pH of cytoplasm

15. In bacteria site of respiration is-

  • (a) Glogi bodies
  • (b) Cytoplasm
  • (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
  • (d) Microsomes

16. In human females there is inactivation of one X chromosomes for dosage compensation due to-

  • (a) Methylation
  • (b) Acetylation
  • (c) Phosphorylation
  • (d) Formylation

17. Type of proofreading activity by DNA polymerase I in E. COLI is-

  • (a) 5′ – 3′ exonuclease
  • (b) 5′ – 3′ endonuclease
  • (c) 3′ – 5′ exonuclease
  • (d) 3′ – 5′ endonuclease

18. Fungus used for commercial production of citric acid is-

  • (a) Neurospora
  • (b) Penicillum
  • (c) Aspergillus
  • (d) Sacchromyces

19. Wild Ass are found at-

  • (a) Kaziranga
  • (b) Nandan Kanan
  • (c) Runn of Kutch
  • (d) Nilgiri hills

20. Rifampicin resistant mutants of E. Coli were obtained in an experiment which of following is most likely to undergo mutation-

  • (a) Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
  • (b) Beta subunit of RNA Polymerase
  • (c) Sigma factor of RNA polymerase
  • (d) Alpha Subunit of RNA polymerase

21. Induction of b-galactosidase activity by IPTG is result of-

  • (a) Stimulation of lac repressor function
  • (b) IPTG binding to lac operon & inducing transcription
  • (c) IPTG binding to lac I gene product and inhibiting its activity
  • (d) Inhibition of b galactosidase degradation

22. Set of genes that are originate by gene duplication are known as-

  • (a) Paralogues
  • (b) Homologues
  • (c) Orthologues
  • (d) Epilogues

23. Mammalian promoters sequence is located-

  • (a) at about 20 bp upstream of translational start site
  • (b) at about 20 bp upstream of transcriptional start site
  • (c) downstream of coding sequence
  • (d) within coding sequence

24. Agrobacterium rhizogenes causes-

  • (a) Crown gall
  • (b) Nodules
  • (c) Hairy root
  • (d) Pustles

25. Which of the following technique would you use to separate molecules based upon their size-

  • (a) Gel Exclusion chromatography
  • (b) Antibody affinity chromatography
  • (c) Ion Exchange chromatography
  • (d) Isoelectric Focusing

26. Which part of translational modification of proteins does not occur in lumen of ER-

  • (a) Glycosylation
  • (b) Ubiquitnation
  • (c) Conformation folding & formation of quaternary structure
  • (d) Formation of Disulphide bonds

27. Short Day (Long night) plants flowers when-

  • (a) night > critical dark period
  • (b) dark period interrupted by flash of light
  • (c) night < critical dark period
  • (d) night < critical dark period & day length is interrupted by dark period

28. In eukaryotes which is not secondary messenger-

  • (a) 1,2 diacyl glycerol (DAG)
  • (b) 3′-5′ Cyclic AMP
  • (c) Inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate
  • (d) Cyclins

29. If a girl born with sickle cell anemia, what must be true for parents-

  • (a) Only father has sickle cell an emia
  • (b) Only mother carried sickle cell an emia
  • (c) Only mother had sickle cell an emia
  • (d) Both parents carried sickle cell an emia

30. Michelis Menten hypothesis-

  • (a) Enables to calculate iso-electric point of enzymes
  • (b) Postulates all enzymes are proteins
  • (c) States that rate of a enzymatic reaction may be independent of substrate concentration
  • (d) Postulates formation of enzyme substrate complex

31. The half life of radium is 1600, the fraction of sample after 6400 years would be-

  • (a) 1/4
  • (b) 1/16
  • (c) 1/8
  • (d) 1/2

32. Which enzyme doesn’t require primer –

  • (a) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
  • (b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
  • (c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
  • (d) Taq DNA polymerase

33. Human cytotoxic T-cells have following phenotype-

  • (a) CD4+ CD8+ CD3+
  • (b) CD4+ CD8 CD3+
  • (c) CD4 CD8 CD3+
  • (d) CD4 CD8+ CD3+

34. Live vaccine is –

  • (a) Low dose of infectious bacteria administered as prophylactic
  • (b) A dose of bacterium strain in a modified form which retains immunogenecity but is not pathogenic
  • (c) A low dose of toxin produced by bacterium
  • (d) A sample of cells from a patient who recovered recently from disease

35. B form of DNA is characterized by-

  • (a) Rare form of DNA bases
  • (b) Left handed helix
  • (c) Helical turn having 2 bases per turn
  • (d) Major and minor grooves that allows molecules interacting with DNA

36. Genes for color blindness are located on-

  • (a) X-Chromosome
  • (b) Y-chromosomes
  • (c) Both
  • (d) None of these

37. Photochemical smog always contains-

  • (a) Ozone
  • (b) Methane
  • (c) CO
  • (d) None of these

38. Mycorrhiza works as-

  • (a) Modified root
  • (b) A root hair in adverse condition
  • (c) Vegetative propagation
  • (d) Mechanical support

39. Development of fruit without fertilization is-

  • (a) Parthenocarpy
  • (b) Pathenogenesis
  • (c) Sporogamy
  • (d) Autogamy

40. Linkage decreases the frequency of –

  • (a) Hybrid
  • (b) Dominant allele
  • (c) Recessive allele
  • (d) both (b) and (c)

41. The bacteria which convert ammonium salts into nitrite is-

  • (a) Nitrobacter
  • (b) Nitrosomonas
  • (c) Azobacter
  • (d) none of these

42. The transfer of genetic material form one bacterium to another by virus is-

  • (a) Transduction
  • (b) Translation
  • (c) Conjugatiuon
  • (d) Transformation

43. Penicillin inhibits bacterial multiplication because-

  • (a) It checks spindle formation
  • (b) It destroys chromatin
  • (c) It inhibits cell wall formation
  • (d) It checks RNA synthesis

44. In photosynthesis, light energy is utilized in-

  • (a) Converting ATP into ADP
  • (b) CO2 change into carbohydrate
  • (c) ADP converting into ATP
  • (d) All of these

45. The plasma membrane of intestine is highly folded into microvilli. The main function of Microvilli is-

  • (a) To Secrete digestive enzymes
  • (b) To help in blood circulation
  • (c) To increase its absorptive surface
  • (d) For ageing of worn out cells

46. The structure formed where two adjacent membrane are thickened with disc shaped adhesive material in between and tonofibrils radiating out from adhesive region is-

  • (a) Gap junction
  • (b) Tight junctions
  • (c) Desmosomes
  • (d) Plasmodesmata

47. How you can separate Gram + ve bacteria from Gram –ve bacteria-

  • (a) Presence of Techoic Acid
  • (b) Absence of periplasmic Space
  • (c) Exotoxin Produced
  • (d) All of the above

48. The process of sneezing of phagocytes between the endothelial cells of blood vessels and reaching to damaged area is known as-

  • (a) Margination
  • (b) Metastasis
  • (c) Diapedesis
  • (d) Angiobiosis

49. In humans cell recognition molecules are-

  • (a) HLA
  • (b) B-cells
  • (c) T-Cells
  • (d) Immunoglobins

50. Cancers cell are monoclonal, are characterized by uncontrolled growth, invasion of other tissues and dissemination to other tissues. The phenomenon of invasion to other tissues is termed as-

  • (a) Angiobiogenesis
  • (b) Metastasis
  • (c) Diapedesis
  • (d) Transformation

51. Environmental control of sex determination is seen in-

  • (a) Melandrium
  • (b) Drosophila
  • (c) Bonelia
  • (d) Apes indica

52. Dosage compensation in case of drossophila is due to-

  • (a) Methylation
  • (b) Acetylation
  • (c) Hyper activation
  • (d) Heterochromatization

53. During respiration in yeast the end product is-

  • (a) Water and CO2
  • (b) CO2 , alcohol and energy
  • (c) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
  • (d) Water and CO2

54. When the earth originated, there was a large amount of methane and other hydrocarbons but now in the present atmosphere, it is replaced by-

  • (a) Hydrogen
  • (b) Oxygen
  • (c) Coal
  • (d) CO2

55. The chromatin is made up of repitative units known-

  • (a) Chromosomes
  • (b) Chromonemata
  • (c) Nucleosomes
  • (d) Nucleotides

56. In Down’s Syndrome the number of chromosomes in somatic cell is-

  • (a) 45
  • (b) 47
  • (c) 22
  • (d) 24

57. Among the following which do not bring variation at Individual level-

  • (a) Gene mutation
  • (b) Fertilization
  • (c) Meiosis and Crossing over
  • (d) Chromosome aberration and Hybridizations

58. Natural selection will not operate if-

  • (a) Population is isolated and small
  • (b) Mutating population
  • (c) Random matting population
  • (d) Large population

59. Which is best experimental demonstration to prove natural selection-

  • (a) Lederberg’s replica replicating
  • (b) Kettelwell’s Industrial metabolism
  • (c) Pastuer’s Swann nech exp.
  • (d) Urey millers exp.

60. Which is false about stabilizing selection-

  • (a) Constant or unchanging environment
  • (b) Introduces heterozygosity
  • (c) Favours average
  • (d) It tends to arrest variance & environmental changes

61. Which hormone is identical and interchangeable and present in all animals is-

  • (a) Thyroid
  • (b) Adrenalin
  • (c) Somatotropin
  • (d) Insulin

62. Birds & mammals forms are generally larger size in colder region as compare to warmer region. This is-

  • (a) Allens rule
  • (b) Cope’s rule
  • (c) Bergman’s rule
  • (d) Dollo’s Law

63. The relationship in which one is benefited without other being harmed is-

  • (a) Ammensalism
  • (b) Commensalism
  • (c) Proto-cooperation
  • (d) Mutualism

64. When mimic resembles a ferocious/ poisonous/distasteful organism for eg. Viceroy butterfly mimics monarch butterfly is –

  • (a) Aggressive mimicry
  • (b) Conscious mimicry
  • (c) Protective mimicry
  • (d) All of these

65. Phylogenetic relationship can be more precisely established by comparing-

  • (a) Amino acid sequence
  • (b) DNA
  • (c) r-RNA
  • (d) m-RNA

66. In a sample from an African population, the frequency of LM and LN alleles were 0.78 and 0.22 resp. What are expected frequency of MN phenotypes-

  • (a) 0.8
  • (b) 0.02
  • (c) 0.34
  • (d) 0.016

67. Changes in the seasons are caused by:

  • (a) the tilt of Earth’s axis toward or away from the sun.
  • (b) annual cycles of temperature and rainfall.
  • (c) variation in the distance between Earth and the sun.
  • (d) an annual cycle in the sun’s energy output.

68. Pelvic girdle and hind limbs in python are example of-

  • (a) Analogous organ
  • (b) Homologous organ
  • (c) Vestigial organ
  • (d) Paralogous organ

69. For muscles the major source of energy is-

  • (a) ATP
  • (b) Phosphocreatin
  • (c) GTP
  • (d) Lactic Acid

70. Early successful stages are tolerant of the harsh, abiotic condition in barren areas are characterized by-

  • (a) Weedy a-selected
  • (b) Weedy r-selected
  • (c) Weedy g-selected
  • (d) Weedy k-selected

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CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 : ANSWER KEY


Part – A

01.(b)02.(b)03.(b)04.(c)05.(a)
06.(a)07.(d)08.(a)09.(b)10.(d)
11.(a)12.(d)13.(d)14.(a)15.(c)
16.(a)17.(d)18.(c)19.(a)20.(d)
21.(d)22.(c)23.(a)24.(b)25.(a)
26.(c)27.(c)28.(b)29.(b)30.(b)

Also Check : CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

IMG 20220506 121619 471 compress19

PART – B

01.(d)02.(c)03.(a)04.(b)05.(c)
06.(c)07.(d)08.(a)09.(c)10.(b)
11.(a)12.(d)13.(b)14.(c)15.(b)
16.(a)17.(c)18.(c)19.(c)20.(b)
21.(c)22.(b)23.(b)24.(a)25.(a)
26.(b)27.(a)28.(d)29.(d)30.(d)
31.(b)32.(c)33.(d)34.(b)35.(d)
36.(a)37.(a)38.(a)39.(a)40.(a)
41.(a)42.(a)43.(c)44.(c)45.(c)
46.(d)47.(d)48.(c)49.(a)50.(b)
51.(a)52.(c)53.(b)54.(b)55.(c)
56.(b)57.(d)58.(c)59.(a)60.(d)
61.(a)62.(c)63.(b)64.(c)65.(b)
66.(c)67.(a)68.(c)69.(b)70.(b)

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