CSIR NET Life Science Test Series Free 2022 [Total 10 test Series]

Are you searching for CSIR NET Test Series? Want to attempt CSIR NET test series for free ? Stop Worrying now, because in this post ExamFlame.com come up with CSIR NET Life Science Test Series where under this Series of Test there are total 10 Test Series are given for practice and the end of this post answer keys are also attached of each test. Test Series gives you the effective output of your preparation for any exam. It will improve your confidence as well as time management that will help you a lot in your examination.

CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 Free 2022 [Practice Now]

In the Syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET Exam contains topics majorly Molecules and their Interaction Relevant to Biology, Cell Communication and Cell Signaling, Cellular Organization, Fundamental Processes, System Physiology – Animal, Developmental Biology, Inheritance Biology, System Physiology – Plant, Diversity of Life Forms, Applied Biology, Ecological Principles, Evolution and Behavior, Methods in Biology.

These Questions are strictly follow your syllabus of Life Science for CSIR NET and prepared under experts of this field. And the Question’s level matches the CSIR NET Exam level, so that these test series will give you same exact feel your exam. Also Check CSIR NET Life Science Study Material PDF Download Free 2022

How to attempt the CSIR NET Life Science Test Series ?

Follow the Instructions bulleted below to attempt each CSIR NET Life Science Test Series :

  • Here total 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are given in each test below , where in each test PART – A contains 30 MCQs and on the other hand PART – B contains 70 MCQs regarding CSIR NET Life Science.
  • Take a sheet of Paper and divide into two Sections as PART – A and PART – B then write down numbers from 1 to 30 in PART – A and 1 to 70 in PART – B for each test.
  • Also Take a separate copy or page for Rough calculations .
  • Solve the Questions in a given time interval which you can choose yourself as per your preparation level .
  • Write your correct answer you think in answer sheet made by you by solving the Question .
  • Match your answers with the correct Answer key attached below at the end of this post .
  • Be honest with yourself and don’t forget to comment your marks below in the comment section.

If you find any of the Question or Answer wrong , then you can freely mention in the comment section below.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. If a pendulum with a time period ‘T’ is placed on moon then its time period will-

  • (a) Increase
  • (b) Decrease
  • (c) Unchanged
  • (d) Infinity

2. When the canon is fired, it will move-

  • (a) Front
  • (b) Back
  • (c) Randomly
  • (d) not moves

3. Soldiers are not allowed to pass in synchronized march over a bridge because-

  • (a) It produces more noise
  • (b) Bridge may break due to resonance
  • (c) Uniform force distribution will break the bridge
  • (d) Center of mass of bridge will increase

4. If the cylinder of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is transformed into disc with radius ‘2r’, then its moment of inertia will be-

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 1/2
  • (d) 1/4

5. On putting a thin water film over a glass plate it becomes more transparent to light because-

  • (a) Lesser would be reflection
  • (b) Lesser will be refraction
  • (c) Trapped air increase transparency
  • (d) It does not happens

6. For equilibrium reaction the value for Delta G will be

  • (a) Zero
  • (b) Negative
  • (c) Positive
  • (d) Infinity

7. The tetrahedral geometry of carbon is best explained by-

  • (a) Monochoro methane
  • (b) Dichloro methane
  • (c) Choloroform
  • (d) Carbon tetrachloride

8. About Haber’s process for ammonia production, the false statement is-

  • (a) It is second order reaction
  • (b) Slow at room temperature
  • (c) High pressure is required
  • (d) Al2O3 is used as catalyst

9. On increasing the NaCl into water it boiling point decreases because-

  • (a) Due to more energetic molecules
  • (b) Weak H-bonding
  • (c) More collision between molecules
  • (d) Activation energy is decreased

10. The necessary condition for reaction to be spontaneous is-

  • (a) H – ve & S + ve
  • (b) H – ve & S – ve
  • (c) H + ve & S + ve
  • (d) H – ve & S + ve

11. Moon does not have atmospheric gases-

  • (a) Gravity is not sufficient to hold gases
  • (b) Speed of rotation is very high
  • (c) Water and plants are absent
  • (d) Absence of sheathing ozone layer

12. Earth is slightly inclined on its axes, if axis of rotation is made perpendicular then major effect will be on-

  • (a) Day & night
  • (b) Seasons
  • (c) Tides of ocean
  • (d) Rotation of earth

13. The magnetic field around earth is a result of –

  • (a) Structure of earth crust
  • (b) Plate faults
  • (c) Motion of liquid mantle
  • (d) Motion in liquefied core

14. Which of them is a result of process of sedimentation-

  • (a) Coal
  • (b) CaCO3
  • (c) Igneous rocks
  • (d) Granite

15. Among the following which radioisotope is routinely used for determination of age of fossils-

  • (a) P 32
  • (b) S 35
  • (c) C 14
  • (d) O 18

16. Convert the binary number 1101.101 into decimal number-

  • (a) 13.625
  • (b) 13.5
  • (c) 13.62
  • (d) 13.26

17. Which of them is not programming language-

  • (a) BASIC
  • (b) COBOL
  • (c) PASCAL
  • (d) LOTOUS

18. The clock speed in computer is usually measured in-

  • (a) Bytes
  • (b) Seconds
  • (c) Hertz
  • (d) RAM

19. Bug, in computer terminology means-

  • (a) Logical error
  • (b) Syntax error
  • (c) Organism effecting computer
  • (d) High level Programming

20. Consider the following programme and write the result that will print at end of program

If A=4 and B=5
Do While A =/= 0
If A >= B
A=A–B
Else
B=B-A
EndIf
PRINT A, B

  • (a) 0, 0
  • (b) 0, 1
  • (c) 1, 1
  • (d) 1, 0

21. If there is double bond between A & T and triple bond between GC, then which sequence will be most stable at higher temperature-

  • (a) ATTGTACCAAA
  • (b) AATTATATATA
  • (c) AGCAGAGAGTT
  • (d) AGGCCGGCCCTA

22. If a tall pea plant is crossed with pure dwarf pea plant, all F1 progenies were tall, in subsequent generation after selfing of F1 generation progeny, the ratio of tall to dwarf plant will be-

  • (a) 1:1
  • (b) 1:2:1
  • (c) 3:1
  • (d) All tall

23. White blood cells (WBC) have major function as-

  • (a) Defensive role
  • (b) Respiration
  • (c) Tumor suppressor
  • (d) Phagocytosis of cell debris

24. Rules stating that as we move toward the polar region from tropics the size of organism increases-

  • (a) Allen’s rule
  • (b) Bergman’s rule
  • (c) Fischer rule
  • (d) Copes rule

25. During photosynthesis evolution of oxygen is from-

  • (a) Water
  • (b) CO2
  • (c) Glucose
  • (d) Chlorophyll

26. Maximum numbers of lines producing symmetrical planes from a regular hexagon-

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 8

27. If P=(1,2), Q=(–2, –10) & R=(1, m) and PQ+QR = Minimum, then the value of ‘m’ will be-

  • (a) + 6
  • (b) – 6
  • (c) + 8
  • (d) – 8

28. Twenty-Five student participate in competition, marks obtained by first two students are 6 & 10. Each subsequent student gains an average of preceding students, then the marks obtained by the 100 student will be-

  • (a) 6
  • (b) 8
  • (c) 10
  • (d) 16

29. How many boxes of size 2 × 2 × 4 can be fitted in a box of size 11 × 8 × 20-

  • (a) 100
  • (b) 110
  • (c) 120
  • (d) 220

30. Integration of below mentioned equation would bee d/dx (ex sin2θ) + d/dx [ex sin2(θ-π/2)]

  • (a) 2ex(sinθ – cosθ)
  • (b) 2ex(sinθ)
  • (c) 2ex(cosθ)
  • (d) ex(sinθ – cosθ)

PART-B >>

1. In Human number of linkage groups present in male is:

  • (a) 21
  • (b) 22
  • (c) 23
  • (d) 24

2. Holiday junction is observed during:

  • (a) Mitosis
  • (b) Interphase
  • (c) Recombination
  • (d) DNA Repair

3. Layer of Atmosphere possessing ozone is-

  • (a) Stratosphere
  • (b) Mesosphere
  • (c) Ionosphere
  • (d) Troposphere

4. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-

  • (a) UV-A &B
  • (b) UV-B
  • (c) UV-B & C
  • (d) UV-A & C

5. Major hot spot of biodiversity in India are-

  • (a) Andaman & western ghats
  • (b) Eastern Ghats & Western Himalayas
  • (c) Western ghats & N.E Himalayas
  • (d) North East and Western Himalayas

6. In humans, XX males and XY Females are rare, such rare sexes are due to-

  • (a) Deletion of X chromosome
  • (b) Deletion of Y chromosome
  • (c) XY translocation
  • (d) Duplication of X chromosomes

7. The major difference in PS-I and PS-II found in Chloroplast are-

  • (a) Position on lamellae
  • (b) Chlorophyll a
  • (c) Position of electron carriers
  • (d) Energy harvesting

8. Testosterone hormone necessary for spermatogenesis is secreted by-

  • (a) Leydig cells
  • (b) Sertoli cells
  • (c) Spermatozoa
  • (d) Cowpers gland

9. The major site of attack by HIV-virus on immune system is-

  • (a) MHC
  • (b) B- Lymphocytes
  • (c) T- Lymphocytes
  • (d) Macrophages

10. Rarely there is occurrence of gill clefts in higher animals, this shows-

  • (a) They may be useful for that organism
  • (b) Ancestral returns of that character
  • (c) Favorable mutation in organism
  • (d) Retrogressive Evolution

11. A single base pair mutation occurs in strand CATTACCG, its complementary strand had a sequence GTTATGGC. It means mutation has changed base pair-

  • (a) A –> T
  • (b) T –> T
  • (c) T –> A
  • (d) A –> A

12. Crossing over occurs during-

  • (a) Mitotic Metaphase
  • (b) Meiotic Metaphase
  • (c) Mitotic Prophase
  • (d) Meiotic Prophase

13. Maize has 10 pairs of chromosome, what will be number of chromosome and chromatids at Metaphase II-

  • (a) 10 & 10
  • (b) 10 & 20
  • (c) 20 & 40
  • (d) 5 & 10

14. In plants IAA causes cell elongation due to-

  • (a) Increase in pH of Apoplast
  • (b) Increase in pH of cytoplasm
  • (c) Decrease in pH of Apoplast
  • (d) Increase in pH of cytoplasm

15. In bacteria site of respiration is-

  • (a) Glogi bodies
  • (b) Cytoplasm
  • (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
  • (d) Microsomes

16. In human females there is inactivation of one X chromosomes for dosage compensation due to-

  • (a) Methylation
  • (b) Acetylation
  • (c) Phosphorylation
  • (d) Formylation

17. Type of proofreading activity by DNA polymerase I in E. COLI is-

  • (a) 5′ – 3′ exonuclease
  • (b) 5′ – 3′ endonuclease
  • (c) 3′ – 5′ exonuclease
  • (d) 3′ – 5′ endonuclease

18. Fungus used for commercial production of citric acid is-

  • (a) Neurospora
  • (b) Penicillum
  • (c) Aspergillus
  • (d) Sacchromyces

19. Wild Ass are found at-

  • (a) Kaziranga
  • (b) Nandan Kanan
  • (c) Runn of Kutch
  • (d) Nilgiri hills

20. Rifampicin resistant mutants of E. Coli were obtained in an experiment which of following is most likely to undergo mutation-

  • (a) Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
  • (b) Beta subunit of RNA Polymerase
  • (c) Sigma factor of RNA polymerase
  • (d) Alpha Subunit of RNA polymerase

21. Induction of b-galactosidase activity by IPTG is result of-

  • (a) Stimulation of lac repressor function
  • (b) IPTG binding to lac operon & inducing transcription
  • (c) IPTG binding to lac I gene product and inhibiting its activity
  • (d) Inhibition of b galactosidase degradation

22. Set of genes that are originate by gene duplication are known as-

  • (a) Paralogues
  • (b) Homologues
  • (c) Orthologues
  • (d) Epilogues

23. Mammalian promoters sequence is located-

  • (a) at about 20 bp upstream of translational start site
  • (b) at about 20 bp upstream of transcriptional start site
  • (c) downstream of coding sequence
  • (d) within coding sequence

24. Agrobacterium rhizogenes causes-

  • (a) Crown gall
  • (b) Nodules
  • (c) Hairy root
  • (d) Pustles

25. Which of the following technique would you use to separate molecules based upon their size-

  • (a) Gel Exclusion chromatography
  • (b) Antibody affinity chromatography
  • (c) Ion Exchange chromatography
  • (d) Isoelectric Focusing

26. Which part of translational modification of proteins does not occur in lumen of ER-

  • (a) Glycosylation
  • (b) Ubiquitnation
  • (c) Conformation folding & formation of quaternary structure
  • (d) Formation of Disulphide bonds

27. Short Day (Long night) plants flowers when-

  • (a) night > critical dark period
  • (b) dark period interrupted by flash of light
  • (c) night < critical dark period
  • (d) night < critical dark period & day length is interrupted by dark period

28. In eukaryotes which is not secondary messenger-

  • (a) 1,2 diacyl glycerol (DAG)
  • (b) 3′-5′ Cyclic AMP
  • (c) Inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate
  • (d) Cyclins

29. If a girl born with sickle cell anemia, what must be true for parents-

  • (a) Only father has sickle cell an emia
  • (b) Only mother carried sickle cell an emia
  • (c) Only mother had sickle cell an emia
  • (d) Both parents carried sickle cell an emia

30. Michelis Menten hypothesis-

  • (a) Enables to calculate iso-electric point of enzymes
  • (b) Postulates all enzymes are proteins
  • (c) States that rate of a enzymatic reaction may be independent of substrate concentration
  • (d) Postulates formation of enzyme substrate complex

31. The half life of radium is 1600, the fraction of sample after 6400 years would be-

  • (a) 1/4
  • (b) 1/16
  • (c) 1/8
  • (d) 1/2

32. Which enzyme doesn’t require primer –

  • (a) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
  • (b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
  • (c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
  • (d) Taq DNA polymerase

33. Human cytotoxic T-cells have following phenotype-

  • (a) CD4+ CD8+ CD3+
  • (b) CD4+ CD8 CD3+
  • (c) CD4 CD8 CD3+
  • (d) CD4 CD8+ CD3+

34. Live vaccine is –

  • (a) Low dose of infectious bacteria administered as prophylactic
  • (b) A dose of bacterium strain in a modified form which retains immunogenecity but is not pathogenic
  • (c) A low dose of toxin produced by bacterium
  • (d) A sample of cells from a patient who recovered recently from disease

35. B form of DNA is characterized by-

  • (a) Rare form of DNA bases
  • (b) Left handed helix
  • (c) Helical turn having 2 bases per turn
  • (d) Major and minor grooves that allows molecules interacting with DNA

36. Genes for color blindness are located on-

  • (a) X-Chromosome
  • (b) Y-chromosomes
  • (c) Both
  • (d) None of these

37. Photochemical smog always contains-

  • (a) Ozone
  • (b) Methane
  • (c) CO
  • (d) None of these

38. Mycorrhiza works as-

  • (a) Modified root
  • (b) A root hair in adverse condition
  • (c) Vegetative propagation
  • (d) Mechanical support

39. Development of fruit without fertilization is-

  • (a) Parthenocarpy
  • (b) Pathenogenesis
  • (c) Sporogamy
  • (d) Autogamy

40. Linkage decreases the frequency of –

  • (a) Hybrid
  • (b) Dominant allele
  • (c) Recessive allele
  • (d) both (b) and (c)

41. The bacteria which convert ammonium salts into nitrite is-

  • (a) Nitrobacter
  • (b) Nitrosomonas
  • (c) Azobacter
  • (d) none of these

42. The transfer of genetic material form one bacterium to another by virus is-

  • (a) Transduction
  • (b) Translation
  • (c) Conjugatiuon
  • (d) Transformation

43. Penicillin inhibits bacterial multiplication because-

  • (a) It checks spindle formation
  • (b) It destroys chromatin
  • (c) It inhibits cell wall formation
  • (d) It checks RNA synthesis

44. In photosynthesis, light energy is utilized in-

  • (a) Converting ATP into ADP
  • (b) CO2 change into carbohydrate
  • (c) ADP converting into ATP
  • (d) All of these

45. The plasma membrane of intestine is highly folded into microvilli. The main function of Microvilli is-

  • (a) To Secrete digestive enzymes
  • (b) To help in blood circulation
  • (c) To increase its absorptive surface
  • (d) For ageing of worn out cells

46. The structure formed where two adjacent membrane are thickened with disc shaped adhesive material in between and tonofibrils radiating out from adhesive region is-

  • (a) Gap junction
  • (b) Tight junctions
  • (c) Desmosomes
  • (d) Plasmodesmata

47. How you can separate Gram + ve bacteria from Gram –ve bacteria-

  • (a) Presence of Techoic Acid
  • (b) Absence of periplasmic Space
  • (c) Exotoxin Produced
  • (d) All of the above

48. The process of sneezing of phagocytes between the endothelial cells of blood vessels and reaching to damaged area is known as-

  • (a) Margination
  • (b) Metastasis
  • (c) Diapedesis
  • (d) Angiobiosis

49. In humans cell recognition molecules are-

  • (a) HLA
  • (b) B-cells
  • (c) T-Cells
  • (d) Immunoglobins

50. Cancers cell are monoclonal, are characterized by uncontrolled growth, invasion of other tissues and dissemination to other tissues. The phenomenon of invasion to other tissues is termed as-

  • (a) Angiobiogenesis
  • (b) Metastasis
  • (c) Diapedesis
  • (d) Transformation

51. Environmental control of sex determination is seen in-

  • (a) Melandrium
  • (b) Drosophila
  • (c) Bonelia
  • (d) Apes indica

52. Dosage compensation in case of drossophila is due to-

  • (a) Methylation
  • (b) Acetylation
  • (c) Hyper activation
  • (d) Heterochromatization

53. During respiration in yeast the end product is-

  • (a) Water and CO2
  • (b) CO2 , alcohol and energy
  • (c) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
  • (d) Water and CO2

54. When the earth originated, there was a large amount of methane and other hydrocarbons but now in the present atmosphere, it is replaced by-

  • (a) Hydrogen
  • (b) Oxygen
  • (c) Coal
  • (d) CO2

55. The chromatin is made up of repitative units known-

  • (a) Chromosomes
  • (b) Chromonemata
  • (c) Nucleosomes
  • (d) Nucleotides

56. In Down’s Syndrome the number of chromosomes in somatic cell is-

  • (a) 45
  • (b) 47
  • (c) 22
  • (d) 24

57. Among the following which do not bring variation at Individual level-

  • (a) Gene mutation
  • (b) Fertilization
  • (c) Meiosis and Crossing over
  • (d) Chromosome aberration and Hybridizations

58. Natural selection will not operate if-

  • (a) Population is isolated and small
  • (b) Mutating population
  • (c) Random matting population
  • (d) Large population

59. Which is best experimental demonstration to prove natural selection-

  • (a) Lederberg’s replica replicating
  • (b) Kettelwell’s Industrial metabolism
  • (c) Pastuer’s Swann nech exp.
  • (d) Urey millers exp.

60. Which is false about stabilizing selection-

  • (a) Constant or unchanging environment
  • (b) Introduces heterozygosity
  • (c) Favours average
  • (d) It tends to arrest variance & environmental changes

61. Which hormone is identical and interchangeable and present in all animals is-

  • (a) Thyroid
  • (b) Adrenalin
  • (c) Somatotropin
  • (d) Insulin

62. Birds & mammals forms are generally larger size in colder region as compare to warmer region. This is-

  • (a) Allens rule
  • (b) Cope’s rule
  • (c) Bergman’s rule
  • (d) Dollo’s Law

63. The relationship in which one is benefited without other being harmed is-

  • (a) Ammensalism
  • (b) Commensalism
  • (c) Proto-cooperation
  • (d) Mutualism

64. When mimic resembles a ferocious/ poisonous/distasteful organism for eg. Viceroy butterfly mimics monarch butterfly is –

  • (a) Aggressive mimicry
  • (b) Conscious mimicry
  • (c) Protective mimicry
  • (d) All of these

65. Phylogenetic relationship can be more precisely established by comparing-

  • (a) Amino acid sequence
  • (b) DNA
  • (c) r-RNA
  • (d) m-RNA

66. In a sample from an African population, the frequency of LM and LN alleles were 0.78 and 0.22 resp. What are expected frequency of MN phenotypes-

  • (a) 0.8
  • (b) 0.02
  • (c) 0.34
  • (d) 0.016

67. Changes in the seasons are caused by:

  • (a) the tilt of Earth’s axis toward or away from the sun.
  • (b) annual cycles of temperature and rainfall.
  • (c) variation in the distance between Earth and the sun.
  • (d) an annual cycle in the sun’s energy output.

68. Pelvic girdle and hind limbs in python are example of-

  • (a) Analogous organ
  • (b) Homologous organ
  • (c) Vestigial organ
  • (d) Paralogous organ

69. For muscles the major source of energy is-

  • (a) ATP
  • (b) Phosphocreatin
  • (c) GTP
  • (d) Lactic Acid

70. Early successful stages are tolerant of the harsh, abiotic condition in barren areas are characterized by-

  • (a) Weedy a-selected
  • (b) Weedy r-selected
  • (c) Weedy g-selected
  • (d) Weedy k-selected

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 02 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. If the pendulum with the time period ‘t’ is placed in the space then its time period will

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Zero (d) Infinity

2. If the ball is thrown with the intial velococity of 100 m/s with angle of 45 0, then what would be ratio of its maximum height to maxim distance is-

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/4 (d) 1

3. The current flowing in the circuit will be-

(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A (c) 0.75 A (d) 1.0 A

4. The lens used to correct the myopia is-

(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Concavo-convex (d) Convexo-concave

5. A body of mass ‘m’ goes round a horizontal circle of radius ‘r’. The work done will be-

(a) mv2/r (b) mv/r2 (c) mgh (d) Zero

6. pH of 10–8 M HCl will be –

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 6.92 (d) 7.08

7. The ground state electronic configuration of iron is [Ar] 3d64S2. The electronic configuration of ferric ion will be-

(a) [Ar] 3d64S0. (b) [Ar] 3d44S2. (c) [Ar] 3d54S0. (d) [Ar] 3d34S2.

8. Among the following one that is not aromatic-

(a) cyclohexadienyl cation (b) cycloheptatrienyl cation (c) cyclopentadienyl cation (d) cyclopropyl cation

9. How much litre of 1.2 Molar solution be added to one litre of 0.6M Nacl to make it 0.75 molar

(a) 0.30 lit (b) 0.33 lit (c) 0.36 lit (d) 0.15 lit

10. The BLACK is coded KCALB, then the white will be-

(a) TIEHW (b) HTWIE (c) ETIHW (d) ETHIW

11. Solve the following quadratic equation: 3x2 + 2x – 1 = 0

(a) –2/3 (b) 3/2 (c) 1/2 (d) –1/3

12. A litre of helium at 2 atmospheric pressure and 27° C is heated until both pressure and volume are doubled . The final temperature of gas will be-

(a) 108° C (b) 927° C (c) 1000° C (d) 1200° C

13. One machine can do work in 10 minutes and a second can do in 15 min, how many minutes will both machines working together simultaneously take to do work-

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 5

14. If any side of triangle is doubled, the area of new triangle is k times of the old one, K is equal to-

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) -2

15. What is the probability of getting to consecutive kings from a peck of playing cards-

(a) 1/52 × 1/53 (b) 4/52 × 4/51 (c) 1/13 × 1/12 (d) 4/52 × 3/51

16. Normal life span of RBC is –

(a) 4 hours (b) 4 months (c) 4 years (d) Immortal

17. Which one of the following animals do not have milk producing mammary glands- (a) Bat (b) Dolphins (c) Platypus (d) Sea Horse

18. A common feature of haemoglobin and chlorophyll is-

(a) They are porphyrin derivative (b) They are oxygen carrier (c) Both help in electron transport chain (d) Both are proteins

19. AIDS virus attacks-

(a) T-helpers cells (b) B-cells (c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes

20. All living beings have self regulatory mechanism to maintain steady state and this is called as-

(a) Homeostasis (b) Osmosis (c) Phagocytosis (d) Parabiosis

21. The ozone layer lies in-

(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Tropopause (d) Mesophere

22. Seasonal variation is due to-

(a) Rotation of earth (b) Revolution of earth (c) Inclination of earth on its axis (d) Gravitational pull of moon

23. Main cause of earthquakes is disturbances in-

(a) Earth crust (b) upper mantle (c) Lower mantle (d) Inner core

24. The planet having maximum density is-

(a) Mercury (b) Jupiter (c) Pluto (d) Earth

25. Computers directly understand which language-

(a) Machine language (b) C (c) Oracle (d) BASIC

26. Which among the following is not physical component of CPU-

(a) RAM (b) CU (c) ALU (d) VDU

27. Binary equivalent of 15.5 is-

(a) 1111.101 (b) 1001.1 (c) 1111.1 (d) 1111.01

28. India’s latest super computer is-

(a) Paran 1000 (b) Param 10000 (c) Param Padam (d) Param Infiniti

29. The difference between the GMT and place ‘A’ which is 82 ½ 0 E of GM line will be-

(a) + 3 ½ hours (b) – 3 ½ hours (c) + 5 ½ hours (d) – 5 ½ hours

30. What would be the output of the following program A=10 B= 20 I= 0 WHILE I < 5 I=I+1 A=A+2 B=B+2 STOP PRINT A,B

(a) 18, 28 (b) 20, 30 (c) 22, 32 (d) 16, 26

PART – B >>

1. Which of the following organelle is involved in photorespiration-

(a) Peroxisomes (b) Ribosomes (c) Glyoxysomes (d) Dictyosomes

2. In which phase of cell cycle the drug colchine exerts its effect-

(a) G1 (b) G2 (c) S (d) M

3. Seed storage protein of legumes are deficient in-

(a) Threonoine (b) Methionine (c) Lysine (d) glycine

4. A hormone that controls closure of stomata in response to water stress is-

(a) Abscissic acid (b) Gibberlin (c) Proline (d) Ethylene

5. The process by which a cell secrete macromolecules by fusing a transport vesicle to plasma membrane is called

(a) Pinocytosis (b) Phagocytosis (c) Endocytosis (d) Exocytosis

6. When a cell is expends energy to move a solute across its membrane against a concentration gradient, the process is called as-

(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Facillitated Diffusion (d) Active transport

7. The CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is-

(a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (b) Ribulose bis phosphate (c) Phospho enol pyruvic acid (d) Xylulose 5 phosphate

8. Light harvesting complex II is located in the-

(a) Thylakoid lumen (b) Stroma (c) Thylakoid membrane (d) Outer membrane of chloroplast

9. The maximum frequency of recombination of genes at two loci is-

(a) 25 % (b) 50 % (c) 75 % (d) 100 %

10. Symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plant is known as- (a) Mycorrhyiza (b) Lichen (c) Collaroid (d) Epiphytic roots

11. A known uncoupler of electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation is-

(a) Dinitrophenol (b) Ancymidol (c) Triaconotol (d) Hexaacamzol

12. Production of transgenic cotton resistant to lepidodenteron insect utilizing bacillus thuringeneisis is due to-

(a) a-endotoxin (b) a-endotoxin (c) a-exotoxin (d) d-exotoxin

13. A group of interconnected food chains is called as-

(a) Pyramid of number (b) Complex food chain (c) Food web (d) Food cycle

14. Among the following phyla, one evolutionarily closest to phylum chordata is-

(a) Annelida (b) Arthopoda (c) Echinodermata (d) Onchycophora

15. Human originated in epoch known as- (a) Pleistocene (b) Pliocene (c) Miocene (d) Holocene

16. The order Anura, Urodela, Apoda belongs the class-

(a) Amphibian (b) Reptilian (c) Mammalian (d) Pisces

17. The condition albinism in man is linked to deficiency of the enzyme-

(a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (b) Arginase (c) Tyrosinase (d) Xanthin oxidase

18. Which among the following is not universal stop codon-

(a) UAA (b) UGA (c) UAC (d) UAG

19. The body temperature of following groups of animals occurs in order-

(a) Protheria>metatheria>Eutheria>Aves (b) Aves>Eutheria>Metatheria>Prototheria (c) Eutheria>Aves>Metatheria>Prototheria (d) Metatheria>Eutheria>Aves>Prototheria

20. If you are asked to clone a man from a single cell and you are provided with the following cells, which one would you will choose-

(a) Sperm (b) Erythrocyte (c) Lymphocyte (d) Kidney fibroblast

21. The number of complementarity determining region(s) present in human kappa chain are-

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

22. Transfer RNA genes are transcribed by-

(a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II (c) RNA polymerase III (d) RNA dependent RNA pol

23. Shine-Dalgarno sequences are associated with-

(a) Transcription (b) Translation (c) Replication (d) Recombination

24. Gonadotropin releasing factor is synthesized by-

(a) Anterior Pituatory (b) Hypothalamus (c) Adrenal (d) Thymus

25. In Eukaryotic cell, DNA synthesis occurs during the phase of cell cycle-

(a) G1 Phase (b) G2 Phase (c) S phase (d) M phase

26. The combination of closely related genetic markers which tends to transmitted as unit to the next generation is called-

(a) Allotype (b) Haplotype (c) Karyotype (d) Isotype

27. The hormone epinephrine is involved in-

(a) Red blood cell synthesis (b) Stress response (c) Control of blood sugar level (d) Control of metabolic rate

28. The vector responsible for the spread of filiaris is-

(a) Anopheles (b) Culex (c) Ades (d) Sand fly

29. The following of the four is not a secondary messanger-

(a) ATP (b) Inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate (c) Ca++ (d) c-AMP

30. Early pregnancy dtection test detects the presence of whoch one of the following hormone-

(a) Human chronic hormone (b) Lutenizing hormone (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Estrogen 438 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

31. Selective transfer of which of the following antibodies are responsible for passive humoral immunity in infants- (a) IgA (b) IgM (c) IgG (d) IgE

32. The animal that most recently extinct from India is- (a) Asiatic Lion (b) Dodo (c) Asiatic Cheetah (d) Golden Langaur

33. Which of the following anti-tumor agent act by impairing the de novo purine synthesis- (a) Cytosine arabinoside (b) 5-flurouracil (c) Methotrexate (d) Hydroxyurea

34. Which one of the following has a quaternary structure- (a) a-chymotrypsin (b) Haemoglobin (c) Insulin (d) Myoglobin

35. Which one of the following is conservative substitution- (a) Val to Ile (b) Asp to Pro (c) Lys to Leu (d) Trp to Ala

36. Phospholipids are involved in all except one of the following- (a) Cell to cell recognition (b) Signal transduction (c) Surfactant function in lungs (d) Mediator of hypersensitivity

37. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is associated with- (a) High level of insulin (b) Severe weight gain (c) Destruction of b-cells of pancreas (d) Mutation of insulin

38. The Z-DNA helix – (a) Has fewer base pair turn then B-DNA (b) Is favoured by alternate GC base pairs (c) Tends to found at 3’ends of genes (d) Is the most common conformation of DNA

39. How many energy bonds are expended in formation of peptide bond- (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6

40. Receptors for steroid hormones are found- (a) On cell membrane (b) In cytoplasm (c) In mitochondria (d) On ribosomes

41. Endonuclease is an enzyme that hydrolyzes-

(a) A nucleotide at 3′ ends of oligonucleotides (b) A phosphodisester bond located in the interior of a polynucleotide (c) A nucleotide from either termini of an oligonucleotide (d) A peptide bond located in the interior of polypeptide

42. The Km of enzyme is- (a) One half of the V max (b) A dissociation constant (c) Substrate concentration that gives max velocity (d) Substrate concentration that gives half-maximum velocity

43. The class of immunoglobin most abundant in body secretion- (a) Ig M (b) Ig G (c) Ig A (d) Ig E

44. One of the following participates in phagocytic activity- (a) Neutrophils (b) Mast cells (c) T-Cells (d) Thrombocytes

45. Operons- (a) Are approximately uniform in size (b) Do not bind protein (c) Are found in all eukaryotic genes (d) Are Shorter in lower eukaryotes then higher ones

46. RNA is very susceptible to hydrolysis in alkali because-

(a) It contains uracil in its structure (b) Its 2′-OH group participates in intramolecular cleavage of phosphodiester backbone (c) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of purine bases (d) Cleavage occurs in the glycosylic bonds of pyramidine bases

47. T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for-

(a) Labeling 3′ ends of DNA (b) Labeling 5′ ends of DNA (c) Creating blunt ends of DNA (d) Dephosphorylation of DNA

48. A plasmid cloning vector should contain all of the following except-

(a) Origin of replication (b) Inducible promoter (c) Selectable marker gene (d) Multiple cloning sites

49. Enzymes used in “cycle sequencing” of DNA is-

(a) T7 DNA polymerase (b) T4 DNA polymerase (c) Klenow DNA polymerase (d) Taq DNA polymerase

50. Viral replication within cells is inhibited by-

(a) IL-4 (b) IL-1 (c) IFN-a (d) TNF-a

51. Holoandric inheritance is shown by-

(a) X-chromosomes (b) Y-chromosomes (c) Autosomes (d) Allosomes

52. Lesch-Nyann Syndrome is due to defect in-

(a) Recessive X-chromosomes (b) Dominant X-chromosome (c) Autosomes (d) Y-chromosomes

53. Selection of African tribes is more of heterozygous gene for RBC is due to-

(a) Severe malaria (b) Environment unstability (c) More cases of Sickle cell anemia (d) both a&c

54. Molecular clock of evolution could be traced on basis of-

(a) Comparison of Short arm of 16-S RNA (b) Substitution in amoniacids of polypeptide due to mutation (c) DNA fingerprinting (d) Fossil study

55. Phylogenetic relationship can be more precisely established by comparing-

(a) Amino acid sequence (b) DNA (c) r-RNA (d) m-RNA

56. The Typical Medelian dihybrid test cross ratio is-

(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 1:1:1:1 (c) 9:7 (d) 1:2:1

57. Extra nuclear genetic material is present in-

(a) Ribosome (b) Centriole (c) Plastids (d) Golgi

58. Dosage compensation in human is achieved by-

(a) Methylation (b) Acetylation (c) Hyperactivation (d) Silencing

59. Energy obtained by oxidation of 1 g of protein is –

(a) 9 K cal (b) 4.5 K cal (c) 18 K cal (d) 12 K cal

60. Among the following the progenitors of mammals were-

(a) Aves (b) Pisces (c) Amphibians (d) Reptiles

61. Abrupt change in gene frequency in isolated population is termed as-

(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Allopatric speciation (c) Random drift (d) Mutation

62. Main cause of loss of Biodiversity is-

(a) Pollution (b) Population explosion (c) Habitat destruction (d) Over exploitation 63. Which radioisotope is used for estimating age of rocks- (a) U238 & K40 (b) U235 & C14 (c) U238 & H3 (d) C14 & H3

64. What is main cause of evolution of new species-

(a) Natural selection (b) Competition (c) Mutation (d) Hybridization

65. Competitive exclusion principle operates in-

(a) Distantly related species (b) Closely related sps. (c) Species in overlapping niche (d) Shortage of nutrition

66. The new type designated when original type is missing-

(a) Co-type (b) Syntype (c) Neotype (d) Lectotype

67. Inversion when chromosomes are not involved is termed as-

(a) Pericentric (b) Paracentric (c) Allocentric (d) Autocentric

68. In a sample from an African population, the frequency of LM and LN alleles were 0.78 and 0.22 resp. What are expected frequency of MN phenotypes-

(a) 0.8 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.34 (d) 0.016

69. Ozone layer is severely depleted at-

(a) Equator (b) Tropics (c) Poles (d) Temperate

70. The anionic charge of phosphodiester bond of DNA in prokaryotes is balanced by-

(a) Polyamines (b) H-NS (c) H-L (d) Histone

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 03 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. What is the fundamental unit on which natural selection acts:

(a) Species (b) Individual (c) Population (d) Gene

2. In a paddy field, which of the following organism can serve as a bio-fertlizer

(a) N2 – Fixing Cynobacteria (b) Methane producing bacteria (c) Nitrifying bacteria (d) Photosynthetic bacteria

3. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle of diameter (d) What is the perimeter (i.e. sum of the sides) of the hexagon?

(a) 3d (b) 6d (c) 3pd (d) (p/3)d

4. The software that forms the web is called:

(a) TCP/ IP (b) html (c) URL (d) www

5. The octal integer 777 when converted to binary becomes

(a) 100000000 (b) 111111111 (c) 11111110 (d) 111111

6. Consider the following truth table. P Q P10 then N = N – 1 If N = 10 then N = 20 If N < 10 then N = N + 1 If N = 0 then STOP If each step in this program takes 1 second, then the total time for the program to run will be:

(a) 10 seconds (b) 20 seconds (c) 100 seconds (d) Infinite

19. Viruses can disable computers. A computer virus can be transmitted one machine to another if:

(a) they are used to run similar application (b) they are used by same programmes (c) floppy disks are exchanged between different computer (d) they use different operating system

20. The aim of galvanising the iron is to :

(a) give it a better look (b) protect it from rusting (c) increase its hardness (d) make it more elastic

21. Silver halides are used in photo-graphic plates because they are:

(a) Oxidised in air (b) colourless (c) easily soluble in hypo solution (d) readily reduced by light

22. A body will radiate heat

(a) at all finite temperature (b) when heated and then allowed to cool (c) when its temperature is higher than surroundings (d) when its temperature is above 0°C

23. The activity of a radioisotope falls to 12.5% in 90 days. The half life of radio isotopeis

(a) 260 days (b) 265 days (c) 270 days (d) 268.2 days

24. Heavy water (Deuterium, D2O) is usually prepared from:

(a) heavy hydrogen (b) sea water only (c) river water only (d) ordinary water

25. Hydrogen bomb is based on the phenomenon of:

(a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission (c) nuclear reaction (d) none

26. During the earthquake most damage is seen on earth crust because earth crust is-

(a) Rigid (b) Brittle (c) Enelastic (d) Molten

27. A certain planet is revolving in a fixed orbit. If the radius of its orbit in increased four times then its mean surface temperature will decrease-

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 16

28. Charge density is more at poles because-

(a) Magnetic field is parallel to poles (b) Magnetic field is parallel to equator (c) Magnetic field is perpendicular to poles (d) Magnetic field is perpendicular to equator

29. If an object absorbs green part of white light, then its color will be-

(a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Green (d) Purple

PART – B >>

1. A homozygous Rh positive man (RR) marries an Rh negative (rr) woman. Their first child is normal, but their second child has hemolytic disease (Rh disease). The first child did not have hemolytic disease because-

(a) the child was heterozygous (b) the child lacked Rh antigen (c) The mother had a previous blood transfusion that protected the child against antibodies (d) Ant-Rh antibodies were not induced in the mother until the delivery of first child.

2. Which of the following organelles has protein-phospholipid membrane, energy conversion enzymes, and ribosomes similar to that found in bacteria-

(a) Lysosome (b) Mitochondria (c) Peroxisomes (d) Rough ER

3. Which of the following take place during the anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell-

(a) Kinetochore microtubule elongate to push chromosomes towards the metaphase plate (b) Sister chromatid remains attached to each other at the centromere and move towards the poles as a unit (c) The contractile ring completes the process of cytokinesis (d) Polar microtubules elongate and slide to push the spindle poles apart.

4. Members of which of the following groups cannot generate their own ATP-

(a) Lichens (b) Diatoms (c) Viruses (d) Protozoa

5. The complementary RNA sequence for GATCAA is

(a) CTAGTT (b) CUAGUU (c) AGCTGG (d) AGCUGG

6. Which of the following would best demonstrate that the genomes of differentiated cell are genetically equivalent?

(a) Isolation and culture of blastomeres of two or four-celled embros (b) Isolation and culture of the nuclei in the presence of cells from which they have been removed (c) Isolation and fusion of two different somatic cell types (d) Injection of a nucleus isolated from an adult cell into an egg from which nucleus has been removed.

7. All of the following mechanisms has been shown experimentally to contribute to the formation of cancer cell EXCEPT

(a) Abnormally high energy reserves in cancer cell that cause them to divide quickly (b) Mutations that cause excess proliferation of growth factor of cancer cells. (c) Mutations that reduced the need for growth factor in cancer cells (d) Mutation that inactivate genes that normally inhibit cell division.

8. Which of the following statement is LEAST likely to be true of mutations in a diploid organism such as fruit fly-

(a) Some loci are more mutable than others (b) Some mutation can affect the activity of several genes. (c) Some mutations can have lethal effects (d) Most somatic mutations markedly alter the organisms phenotype.

9. The addition of colchicine to a culture of actively dividing flagellated eukaryotic cells inhibit all of the following EXCEPT-

(a) Movement of the flagella (b) Growth of the flagella (c) Formation of microtubular cytoskeleton (d) Polymerization of tubulin

10. In enzyme mediated reaction, enzyme molecules are capable of all the following EXCEPT-

(a) altering the equilibrium of the chemical reaction (b) decreasing the activation energy of the reactions. (c) increasing the rate of reaction (d) binding of molecules other then substrate molecules

11. The cDNA fragment that includes the ricin gene is 5.7 kilobases. If the entire fragment codes for the ricin polypeptide, the approximate number of amino acids in the polypeptide would be-

(a) 17,100 (b) 5,700 (c) 2,500 (d) 1,900

12. Member of which of the following classes of macromolecules are known to exhibit enzyme like (catalytic) properties I. RNA II. Glycoprotein III. Lipoprotein IV. Polysaccharides

(a) II and III (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) All the four

13. Which of the following statement is NOT characteristic of all viruses with DNA genomes?

(a) Replication occurs only in a living cell (b) Replication involves the translation on cellular ribosomes (c) The viral nucleocapsid is surrounded by a lipid envelope (d) The viral genome is surrounded by a protein

14. In the presence of a fixed concentration of a competitive inhibitor, which of the following would best characterized an enzyme catalyzed reaction when the concentration of the substrate is increased?

(a) The Km increases (b) The inhibition decreases (c) The maximal rate of reaction (Vmax) increases (d) The maximal rate of reaction (Vmax) decreases

15. Biological oxidation of glucose resulting in which of the following metabolic end product would yield the largest number of ATP molecules?

(a) CH3CHOHCOOH (b) CH3COCOOH (c) CO2 + N2 + H2O (d) CO2 + H2O

16. The distribution of transmembrane proteins in the plane of cell membrane can be visualized by which of the following?

(a) Thin section electron microscopy (b) Freeze fracture electron microscopy (c) Ultraviolet spectroscopy (d) SDS-gel electrophoresis

17. Plasmodesmata most closely resembles which of following in animal cells

(a) Desmosomes (b) Gap junction (c) Basal laminae (d) Tight junction

18. All of the following occur during maturation of a proplastid into a chloroplast EXCEPT

(a) an increase in size (b) an increase in the number of grana (c) the bleaching of chlorophyll (d) the synthesis of pigments

19. A peptidase hydrolyzes peptide bonds in small proteins. In the dipeptide shown above, which bond would be hydrolyzed?

(a) A or E (b) B (c) C (d) D

20. All of the following cellular events involve actin filaments EXCEPT

(a) Amoeboid movement (b) Cytoplasmic streaming (c) Contraction of smooth muscles (d) Flagellar movement in bacteria

21. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells share all the following EXCEPT

(a) ribosome dependent proteins synthesis (b) ATP synthesis linked to a protein gradient (c) a selectively permeable membrane (d) a cytoskeleton of tubulin R H R | | | + HN — C — C — N — C —COO– | || | H O H 1 2 3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

22. In E. coli, induction of the lactose operon occurs when allolactose binds to

(a) galactosidase (b) lac mRNA (c) the operator (d) the repressor

23. Synthesis and processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA includes all of the following EXCEPT

(a) formation of a ribonucleoprotein complex (b) formation of a short region of RNA-DNA duplex (c) Addition of polyuridine at the 3’end (d) ligation of exons

24. The autoradiogram above (after the electrophoresis and southern blotting) shows human DNA digested with a specific restriction enzyme and probed with labelled rRNA. In the autoradiogram on the left, the probe was 28S rRNA; at the right, the probe was 18S rRNA. If the arrows in the following maps locate the recognition site of the restriction enzyme, which map best explains the results shown above- (a) (b) (c) (d)

25. During which of the following stages of the cell cycle will a diploid cell contains twice the amount of DNA found in a gamete?

(a) Prophase (b) Entire S phase (c) Entire G1 phase (d) Entire G2 phase

26. With respect to human height, the production of short individuals by two average sized parents is best explained by-

(a) mutation (b) Polygenic inheritance (c) Epistasis (d) Discontinous variation

27. At which of the following trophic levels is the greatest amount of free energy available-

(a) Producers (b) Herbivores (c) Top consumers (d) Decomposers

28. A balanced polymorphism may be maintained by all of the following EXCEPT

(a) Natural selection (b) Directional selection (c) Heterozygote advantage (d) Use of multiple niches

29. A severe winter storm kills many chickadees. An investigation comparing the body size of dead birds with that of survivors reveals that the dead birds include mainly the largest and smallest members of the population. The winter storm exemplifies

(a) Stabalizing selection (b) Directional selection (c) Balancing selection (d) Kin selection DNA Base Pai sr ×( 1 0, 00)

30. All of the following may be true of a population with a stable age distribution EXCEPT

(a) The number of organism is changing at a constant rate (b) Age specific births and death rates are not changing over time (c) Population size increasing (d) The proportions of organisms in each class are changing

31. Larger islands may have greater species diversity than smaller islands because larger islands

(a) are in tropics (b) are farther from continents than smaller islands are (c) have more habitat than smaller islands do (d) have no reproductive isolation among their populations

32. Two if the premises that form the basis if Darwin’s concept of natural selection are

(a) Ecotype and race (b) heritability and fitness (c) Uniformitarianism and catatrophism (d) geographic and reproductive isolation

33. In an ecosystem, fixed carbon has accumulate in the form of organic matter derived from dead plants and animals. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?

(a) Decomposer activity has been low (b) Producers have been utilizing sunlight inadequately (c) There have been insufficient numbers of secondary consumers (d) Nitrogen has been cycled, but carbon has not

34. Which of the following is a density-independent factor that could limit a population of high altitude butterflies?

(a) A late spring snow storm (b) Scarcity of oviposition sires (c) Predation (d) Parasitism

35. One summer the moose population of national park was unusually high, and park naturalist noticed signs of malnutrition among the adults. The wolf population was fairly low, near 20. That winter for first time in many years, a substantial number of seemingly healthy adult mouse as well as calves and crippled animals were killed and eaten by wolves. This description is part of a general situation in which the wolf and moose populations-

(a) Are maintained in a stable equilibrium from year to year (b) Are simultaneously becoming extinct (c) Fluctuate out of phase with each other (d) Fluctuate independently of each other

36. A prime factor promoting the adaptive radiation of Darwin’s finces on the Galapagos Islands was the

(a) Variety of available and suitable habitats (b) High predation pressure (c) Genetic uniformity of the original invading populations of birds (d) Presence of warblers and true wood peckers on the islands

37. All of the following are adaptations that permit the camel to be active by day in the desert EXCEPT

(a) Thick fur (b) Hyperthermia (c) Elongated nasal cavity (d) Water storage in hump

38. Among the following ecological relationships below which is most different from other three?

(a) Fungal mycelia around the algal cells in lichens (b) Algal cells embedded in coral tissues (c) Salmonella in the human gut (d) Cellulose digesting protozoa in a termite gut

39. Niches of two coexisting species of pond snails of the same genus are likely to be similar, but not identical, because of which of the following?

  • I. Closely related species use similar resources
  • II. Competitive interactions exist between these species
  • III. Unlimited resources are available

(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) I and III only

40. In which of the following habitats would one expect to find the highest diversity of vascular plants?

(a) Salt marsh (b) Spruce-Fir forest (c) Small islands (d) Prairie-forest ecotone

41. In deep-sea hydrothermal vents near the Galapagos Islands, bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing hydrogen sulphide released from the vents. Giant tube worms, which lack mouth and digestive systems, harbor the bacteria in their tissues and use them as a source of organic molecules. Clams obtain energy by filtering bacteria directly from the water, and numerous crabs and octopi feed on clams. In this unique ecosystem, the bacteria are playing the role of

(a) Primary producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Tertiary consumers (d) Decomposers

42. Which of the following would be considered to be natural populations in pond?

(a) All individuals of the genus Rana (b) All the individuals of species Rana tigerina (c) All the organisms of any two species affecting each other ecologically (d) All the adults of any one species

43. The massive adaptation radiation of insects over the world is most likely related to the

(a) World wide increase in species diversity in the Cambrian period (b) evolution of the land flora by the middle of Paleozoic era (c) human alteration of the environment in the Pleistocene epoch (d) environmental stability of the seas over all of geological time

44. One group of ecologist has suggested that producers are limited by compettion for resources, primary consumers (herbivores) are limited by predation, and secondary consumers (carnivores) are limited by food. If this was true, at which of the following trophic levels would one expect to find substantial evidence for competitive exclusion?

(a) Producers only (b) Herbivores only (c) Carnivores only (d) Producers and carnivores

45. Which of the following statements is most likely correct concerning the HardyWeinberg equilibrium in natural populations?

(a) It occurs infrequently in small populations from natural communities (b) It occurs in founding populations, but not in established populations (c) It occurs in populations from late successional communities, but not from early successional communities (d) It occurs on small islands, but on large islands.

46. Under some circumstances a population can split into two or more species without the existence of geographic barriers. All of the following genetically determined behavior could provide conditions leading to speciation except-

(a) Selection of a specific host fruit for completion of life cycle by a fruit fly (b) Association of courtship with a particular habitat type in a sparrow (c) Choice of a butterfly of the time of day to breed (d) Selection of prey types by a wide ranging hawk

47. If the alleles ‘A’ and ‘a’ conform to Hardy-Weinberg expectations, and if the frequency of ‘a’ is 0.3, which of the following is the most common genotype in the population

(a) A (b) Aa (c) AA (d) aa

48. The theory of punctuated equilibrium argues that

(a) Speciation and morphological divergence are weakly associated (b) Selective forces act throughout a species life time (c) Major morphological changes are separated by long periods of morphological statis (d) Speciation rates are not related to evolutionary rates

49. Which of the following is true of a selectively neutral gene that is a mutant allele at a locus-

(a) Its effect on fitness are different from those of more frequent allele that leads to normal phenotype (b) It reaches high frequencies because of state of balanced polymorphism (c) It confers neither reproductive advantage nor disadvantage on the individual (d) Its expression is masked by the normal allele

50. Which of the following is a post zygotic isolating mechanism in speciation?

(a) Isolation by hybrid sterility (b) Seasonal isolation (c) Behavioural isolation (d) Geographical isolation

51. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that

(a) Are allopatric (b) Are undergoing gene flow (c) Are small and interbred (d) Have great reproductive potential

52. The resemblance of body structures and mode of life of some species of Australian marsupials to certain species of placental mammals is an example of

(a) Convergent evolution (b) Punctuated equilibrium (c) Sequential evolution (d) Polymorphism

53. If one compares the primary structure of the protein cytochrome c in organisms that are separated in evolutionary time, e.g, humans and yeast, one discovers that

(a) Hydrophilic amino acids are usually substituted fro hydrophobic amino acids (b) The overall primary and tertiary structure of molecule is quite different (c) The proteins have evolved different functions (d) Considerable sequences similarity exist between the two proteins

54. Which of the following genotypes would produce the greatest variety of gametes of the alleles assorted independently?

(a) aaBBCcDd (b) aabbCCDD (c) AaBbCCDd (d) AABBCCDD

55. Which of the following is most likely to reduce competition in sympatric, closely related species

(a) Darwinian fitness (b) Kin selection (c) Niche overlap (d) Character displacement

56. It is now thought that the atmosphere of the primitive Earth was composed largely of carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and water vapor. The composition of certain iron-containing minerals suggest that the carbon dioxide began to be replaced by oxygen about 2 billion years ago. Which of the following is the best explanation for the change in atmospheric composition?

(a) Ozone produced in the upper atmosphere by UV light broke down to oxygen (b) Minerals such as iron oxide released oxygen into atmosphere (c) Oxygen was present in volcanic gases and slowly accumulated with time (d) Photosynthesis was established in primitive bacteria

57. The amino acids in the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain of human proteins differs from those of chimpanzee by approximately what percent?

(a) 99% (b) 49% (c) 9% (d) 1%

58. An evolutionary benefit of sexual reproduction is that

(a) It provides a mechanism of genetic recombination. (b) It requires a lower level of resource investment than asexual does (c) The offspring will resemble their parents genetically (d) The reproductive success rates are less variable than for asexual reproduction

59. The unit of life in which biological evolution actually occurs is usually considered to be the

(a) Whole organism (b) Population (c) Species (d) Community

60. It has been proposed that mitochondria and chloroplast evolved from certain bacteria that existed as endo-symbiotic organism in early cells. Which of the following will best support this hypothesis-?

(a) Both organelles contain DNA molecule (b) Both organelles have microtubules (c) Both organelles lacks mRNA (d) Only chloroplast can synthesize some proteins

61. Which of following plant hormones hasten the apple ripening?

(a) Auxins (b) Gibberellin (c) Abscisic acid (d) Ethylene

62. All if the following are responses of the vertebrate egg to fusion with the male gamete EXCEPT

(a) Completion of maturation (meiotic division) (b) Loss of the ability to undergo mitosis (c) Transient elevation of intracellular free calcium (d) Fusion of male and female pronuclei

63. Which of the following is secreted principally by the corpus luteum of the human ovary?

(a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Follicle stimulating hormone (c) Gondotropin releasing factor and estrogen (d) Progesterone

64. Blood fibrinogen is converted into fibrin during

(a) Immune response (b) Oxygen transport (c) Glucose regulation (d) Clot formation

65. All of the following are found in vertebrate smooth muscles EXCEPT

(a) Sarcomeres (b) Thin filaments (c) Thick filaments (d) Tropomyosin

66. A vitamin that has an important role in the formation of collagen fibres and prevention of scurvy is

(a) Thiamin (b) Riboflavin (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Tocopherol

67. In mammals, which of the following are produced after rearrangement of DNA sequence in specific cells?

(a) Hemoglobins (b) Actins (c) Antibodies (d) Trypsins

68. In a cross between a pure bred, red-eyed female fruit fly and a white-eyed male, what percent of the male offspring will have white eyes? (white eyes are X-linked, recessive)

(a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 0%

69. Hemophilia in humans is due to an X-chromosome mutation. What will be the results of mating between a normal (non-carrier) female and a hemophilac male?

(a) Half of daughters are normal and half of sons are hemophilic. (b) All sons are normal and all daughters are carriers. (c) Half of sons are normal and half are hemophilic; all daughters are carriers. (d) Half of daughters are hemophilic and half of daughters are carriers; all sons are normal.

70. Two unlinked loci effect mouse hair color. AA or Aa mice are agouti. Mice with genotype aa are albino because all pigment production is blocked, regardless of the phenotype at the second locus. At the second locus, the B allele (agouti coat) is dominant to the b allele (black coat). What would be the result of a cross between two agouti mice of genotype AaBb?

(a) 4 agouti: 4 black: 8 albino (b) 9 agouti: 3 black: 3 albino: 1 grey (c) 9 agouti: 3 black: 4 albino (d) 8 agouti: 4 black: 4 albino

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 04 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. Three numbers x, y, z are in geometric progression. If the sum of the three numbers is 26 and the largest of the three number is 9 times that of the small number, then the values of largest number is-

(a) 20 (b) 18. (c) 15 (d) 10

2. An electric beam can deflect-

(a) X-rays (b) a-rays (c) g-rays (d) neutron beam

3. The half life of the first order reaction is 60 sec. After the first three minutes the percentage of reactant remaining is-

(a) 7.5 % (b) 15 % (c) 25 % (d) 12.5 %

4. Aspirin is chemically-

(a) Methyl benzoate (b) Ethyl salicate (c) Acetyl salicylic acid (d) o-hydorxybenzoic acid

5. Phosphorus normally exhibits a covalency of-

(a) +3 and +5 (b) +1 and +3 (c) +2 and +3 (d) +3 and +4

6. The reaction of ethanol, with a series of inorganic acid is studied. What is order of reactivity of halogens acid with ethanol-

(a) HCl>HBr>HI (b) HI>HBr>HCl (c) HBr>HI>HCl (d) HBr>HCl>HI

7. A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 4200 Å in air travels in water (refractive index = 4/3). Its wavelength in water will be-

(a) 2800 Å (b) 5600 Å (c) 3150 Å (d) 4200 Å

8. Which of the following has the highest percentage of ionic character in its bonding-

(a) Licl (b) BeCl2 (c) CsF (d) CsCl

9. When the temperature of a chemical reaction is increased, there is increase in the-

(a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy (c) Free energy (d) Heat capacity

10. If the six amino acids in succession form a hexapeptide, the resulting structure will have-

(a) Six peptide bond and six Ca atoms (b) Five peptide bond and six Ca atoms (c) Five peptide bond and five Ca atoms (d) Six peptide bond and five Ca atoms

11. For the following algolrithm, what is value of x on completion of the codex=0 i=0 j=10 do while i<10 x=i+j i=i+1 j=j–1 end do

(a) 100 (b) 135 (c) 0 (d) 9

12. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present around the centre in BF3 is

(a) linear, sp (b) trigonal planner, sp2 (c) tetrahedral, sp3 (d) pyramidal, sp3

13. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3P6, 3d5, and 4s1. This represent its (a) Excited state (b) Ground state (c) Cationic form (d) Anionic form

14. In bioinformatics BLAST means

(a) Basic Local Alignment Search Tool (b) Bioinformatics Local Alignment Search Test (c) Biological Logarithmic Alignment Search Tool (d) Basic Local Alignment Software Throughput

15. Potassium permanganate is a/an – agent

(a) reducing (b) alkylating (c) oxidizing (d) None

16. Unit for the measure of conductance is

(a) volt (b) mho (c) amp (d) ohm

17. Which of the following is coldest?

(a) North pole (b) Siberia (c) Liquid nitrogen (d) Dry ice

18. Which one of the five choices makes the best comparison? LIVED is to DEVIL as 6323 is to

(a) 2336 (b) 6232 (c) 3326 (d) 3236

19. Which number should come next? 144 : 12 1 : 100 : 81 : 64 : ? (a) 17 (b) 19 (c) 36 (d) 49

20. From a garden two girls collect 25 flowers. Hema collects four times as many as Jaya did How many flowers did Jaya collect? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 10

21. A boy is 4 years old and his sister is three times as old as he is. When the boy is 12 years old, how old will his sister be? (a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 36

22. In a Redox reaction involving two molecules (a) both lose electrons (b) one molecule loses electron and is reduced while the other gains electrons (c) one molecule loses electrons and is oxidized while the other gains electrons (d) one molecule gains electrons and is oxidized while the other loses electrons

23. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be most soluble in water? (a) CH3–CH2–OH (b) CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH (c) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH (d) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

24. What would be the output of following program (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 i = 0 i = i + 1 i 2< 10 Print i yes Model Test Paper – 4 459

25. If an integer occupies five character in its binary form. The number of characters required for its decimal form will be- (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

26. The distance between point A and B will be- (a) ÷2 (b) 3 (c) 3÷3 (d) ÷3

27. A wooden box of mass M is suspended between two springs having spring constant K1 and K2. Both springs are fixed to walls. If the wooden block is displaced along (+) Xaxis then the time period for oscillation will be- (a) T = 2p÷m/k1 + k2 (b) T = 2p÷m(k1/k2) g (c) T = 2p÷m(k1 – k2)2/g (d) T = 2p÷(k1 – k2)/m

28. A satellite is revolving around an planet with orbital radius R. If mean density of planet is r and universal gravitational constant is G. Then the orbital velocity will depend on-

(a) G & r (b) r & R (c) G, R & r (d) only on R

29. Given y = = dx dy a . x

(a) xax–1 (b) 1/ax (c) a x ln a (d) None of the above

30. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol?

(a) 2.5% (b) 10 – 15% (c) 10% (d) 5%

PART – B >>

1. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male. During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in (a) one-third of the progenies (b) none of the progenies (c) all the progenies (d) fifty percent of the progenies 1 1 1 A B M K1 K2 460 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

2. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the vacuole will (a) Increase in number (b) Disappear (c) Increase in size (d) Decrease in size

3. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body: (a) Homeothermy (b) Presence of diaphragm (c) Four chambered heart (d) Rib cage

4. Chemically hormones are (a) Biogenic amines only (b) Proteins, steroids and biogenic amines (c) Proteins only (d) Steroids only

5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia (b) Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite (c) Vitamin B1 – Beri-beri (d) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra

6. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s glands which secrete two hormones called (a) Kinase, estrogen (b) Secretin, cholecystokinin (c) Prolactin, parathormone (d) Estradiol, progesterone

7. Mast cells of connective tissue contain (a) Vasopressin and relaxin (b) Heparin and histamine (c) Heparin and calcitonin (d) Serotonin and melanin

8. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are (a) Starved of mutation (b) Undergoing rapid division (c) Different in structure (d) Non-dividing

9. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in (a) Actinin (b) Troponin (c) Myosin (d) Actin

10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Streptomyces – Antibiotic (b) Serratia – Drug addiction (c) Spirulina – Single cell protein (d) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer Model Test Paper – 4 461

11. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla is (a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella (c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena

12. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would be (a) B (b) O (c) AB (d) A

13. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? (a) Luteinizing hormone – Failure of ovulation (b) Insulin- Diabetes insipidus (c) Thyroxine – Tetany (d) Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes mellitus

14. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of (a) Frame shift mutation (b) Transcription (c) Transition (d) Transversion

15. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta? (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (b) Prolactin (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone

16. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of them will you not use for the purpose? (a) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate (b) Chilled test tube (c) Test tube containing heparin (d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate

17. What is a keystone species? (a) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organisation and survival (b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organization (c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community (d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species

18. DNA fingerprinting refers to (a) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples (b) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices (c) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA (d) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals

19. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in (a) Type of movement and placement in cell (b) Location in cell and mode of functioning (c) Microtubular organization and type of movement (d) Microtubular organization and function

20. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca (c) Cnidaria (d) Echinodermata

21. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to (a) Repulsion (b) Recombination (c) Linkage (d) Crossing over

22. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area? (a) By tissue culture method (b) By creating biosphere reserve (c) By creating botanical garden (d) By developing seed bank

23. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem? (a) Secondary Production (b) Tertiary Production (c) Gross Production (GP) (d) Net Production (NP)

24. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no (a) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes (b) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen (c) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes (d) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil

25. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes (a) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils (b) Study of the conditions of fossilization Model Test Paper – 4 463 (c) Electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA (d) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rock

26. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes? (a) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only (b) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only (c) Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone (d) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria

27. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having (a) Low stability and high resilience (b) High stability and low resilience (c) Low stability and low resilience (d) High stability and high resilience

28. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be (a) TATGC (b) TCTGG (c) UAUGC (d) UATGC

29. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in (a) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria (c) Ribosomes and chloroplast (d) Lysosomes and ribosomes

30. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called (a) Lysozymes (b) Lipolytic (c) Lytic (d) Lysogenic

31. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans are always (a) Lethal (b) Sub-lethal (c) Expressed in males (d) Expressed in females

32. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is (a) Malic acid (b) Oxaloacetic acid (c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde 464 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

33. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher organisms occurs between (a) Sister chromatids of a bivalent (b) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent (c) Two daughter nuclei (d) Two different bivalents

34. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? (a) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses (b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (c) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA (d) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man

35. Restriction endonucleases (a) Aare present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies (b) Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules (c) Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis (d) Sre synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism

36. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by (a) ATP (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (c) NAD+ (d) molecular oxygen

37. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on (a) Observable characteristics of existing organisms (b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms (c) Dendrogram based on DNA characteristics (d) Sexual characteristics

38. The Ti plasmid, is often used for making transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in (a) Azotobacter (b) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants (c) Agrobacterium (d) Yeast as a 2 µm plasmid

39. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt, (a) 25% will be tall with red fruit (b) 50% will be tall with red fruit (c) 75% will be tall with red fruit (d) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit Model Test Paper – 4 465

40. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle? (a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina (b) Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina (c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast (d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes

41. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind is married to a normal man. The sons would be (a) 75% colour-blind (b) 50% colour-blind (c) All normal (d) All colour-blind

42. In the amino acid GLY, the Ca atom is connected to one carboxyl group, one amino group and two hydrogen bonds. The H-Ca-H bond angle is likely to be close to-

(a) 1800 (b) 900 (c) 109.50 (d) 1200

43. In which of the following structure, you are likely to see non-watson crick base pairs-

(a) B-DNA (b) A-DNA (c) Z-DNA (d) t-RNA

44. In the structure of ideal Watson -crick B-DNA

(a) Base pairs are perpendicular to the helix axis (b) Base pairs are parallel to the helix axis (c) Base pairs are inclined with respect of the helix axis (d) Hydrogen bond between bases are perpendicular to the helix axis

45. If the side R groups of alternate aminoacids along a polypeptide strand points in opposite direction then the secondary structure of polypeptide stretch should be-

(a) a-helix (b) 310 -helix (c) b-strand (d) Random coil

46. The peptide ITVNGKTY can take up the following three structuresA. all 8 amino acids are in a-helix conformation B. all 8 amino acids are in b-helix conformation C. all 8 amino acids are in 310-helix conformation Arrange the structure in decreasing order of their N to terminal distances-

(a) ABC (b) BCA (c) CAB (d) BAC (changed)

47. The phospholipids which form a membrane bilayer are-

(a) Completely non-polar molecules (b) Completely polar groups (c) Ampipathic molecules with polar head group and hydrophobic tail (d) None of the above

48. In the pedigree above, circles denotes females, squares denote males, and shaded figures denote individual expressing a specific trait. Which of the following is most probable mode of inheritance of this trait?

(a) Simple Mendelian dominant (b) Simple Mendelian recessive (c) Codominant relationship of a single pair of alleles (d) X-linked dominant transmission

49. Catabolite repression in E. coli bacteria, involving the catabolite activator protein (CAP), is actually a type of positive regulation, because

(a) cAMP-CAP helps RNA polymerase to initiate transcription (b) cAMP-CAP prevents RNA polymerase from initiating transcription (c) Glucose stimulates the production of cAMP (d) Glucose binds CAP and inactivates it

50. The rate at which a DNA fragment moves in an electrophoretic gel is primarily a function of the fragment’s

(a) Length (b) Double helical structure (c) Degree of methylation (d) Adenine content

51. Mitochondria and chloroplast carry out oxidative phosphorylation and photo phospho -rylation, respectively, by means of

(a) Conformational coupling (b) Chemiosmotic coupling (c) High energy intermediate coupling (d) Sliding filaments

52. C4 plants, by decreasing photorespiration and efficiency carrying out photosynthesis, can

(a) Decrease stomatal openings and thereby reduce the water loss. (b) Decrease stomatal opening and thereby reduce the leaf temperature (c) Increase stomatal opening and thereby increase water loss (d) Increase stomatal opening and thereby increase transpiration rates

53. Which of the following adaptation appeared for first time in the common ancestor of the mammals, birds, and modern reptiles?

(a) Membranous lungs (b) Internal nostrils (c) Tetrapod limbs (d) Amniotic eggs

54. Intron-free genes can be obtained through:

(a) Inverse-transcription (b) Direct transcription (c) Reverse transcription (d) Sequence transcription

55. According to inducible operon concept, an operator gene combines with:

(a) Inducer gene to switch on transcription (b) Regulator protein to switch off transcription (c) Regulator gene to switch off transcription (d) Regulator protein to switch on transcription

56. The peptide, Gly – lie – Met – Lys -Glu – Phe, upon treatment with Trysin produces:

(a) Gly-Ile-Met+ Lys-Glu-Phe (b) Gly-Ile-Met-Lys+Glu-Phe (c) Gly- lie + Met-Lys-Glu-Phe (d) All of the above

57. Ouabain inhibits the Na+/K+ pump by:

(a) Binding toNa+- binding site (b) Binding to K+- binding site (c) Binding to ATP binding site (d) None

58. When [S] = KM, the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is about:

(a) 0.1 × Vmax (b) 0.2 × Vmax (c) 0.3 × Vmax (d) 0.5 × Vmax

59. Many enzymes require cofactors to function. Many of these cofactors are vitamins. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(a) Fe, Zn, Cu, Mg, Mn, K, Ni, and Mo are classified as vitamins (b) Humans have lost the ability to synthesize vitamins (c) Vitamins are modified by the body to form coenzymes (d) There are 2 classes of vitamins: water-soluble and fat-soluble

60. The first antibody synthesized by the fetus:

(a) IgG (b) IgA (c) IgM (d) IgE

61. Multimeric forms may contain a secretary component:

(a) Ig A &IgD (b) IgD & IgG (c) IgG & IgE (d) IgA & IgM 468 CSIR-NET Life Sciences

62. In the diagram above, the centre of each circle represents the location at which homing pigeons were released. The top of each circle is the homeward direction, each dot represents the direction taken by the one bird, and the arrows represents the statistical average if the chosen directions. The bird in left-hand circle were equipped with the magnets that prevented them from detecting the Earth’s magnetic field. This experiment demonstrated that homing pigeons

(a) can navigate only on sunny days (b) can use either the sun or earth’s magnetic field as navigational aids (c) use only the sun as a compass for navigation (d) lose navigational ability when magnet are attached to them

63. Two populations of land snails have been effectively isolated from each other for a long period. According to the biological species concept, which of the following would demonstrate that the two populations have become separate species?

(a) The two populations behave differently when subjected to same dose of pesticides (b) Sterile hybrids are produced when member of the two populations are experimentally mated (c) DNA nucleotide sequence are different between two populations (d) The two populations have different electrophoretic pattern of proteins

64. Behaviour by an individual that confers evolutionary benefits to a recipient at no evolutionary cost to donor because the recipient delivers benefits to the donor at some later time and behavior by an individual that increases the fitness of recipients but lowers the fitness of donor are termed as

(a) Reciprocity and Altruism (b) Cooperation and Spite (c) Nepotism and Kin selection (d) Symbiosis and Predation Sunny Day Overcast Day Model Test Paper – 4 469

65. The birds in tropics are generally smaller in size because of-

(a) To increase surface area to volume ratio (b) To decrease surface area to volume ratio (c) For easy flight (d) Aestivation

66. In an pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is ‘p’ and biomass consumed by small fishes is ‘c’, then the ratio of c/p is termed as-

(a) Assimilation efficiency (b) Net secondary productivity (c) Consumption efficiency (d) Conversion efficiency

67. For climax which statement is INCORRECT?

(a) Number of perennial species increases (b) Dependency on detritious food chain increases (c) Vertical stratification of community increases (d) Exploitation competition is more then normal competition

68. At present, the relationship between human and monkey can be stated as

(a) They both have common ancestors (b) Human have evolved from monkey (c) Both have very distinct phylogeny (d) Relationship can not be established

69. Most of new species are formed by the process of – (a) Anagenesis (b) Cladogenesis (c) Sympatric speciation (d) Phylogenetic evolution

70. First organism evolved on earth were-

(a) Aerobic heterotrophs (b) Anaerobic heterotrophs (c) Aerobic autotrophs (d) Anaerobic autrotrophs

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 05 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students.
The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their
birth is:
(a) 3/1000 (b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)2 (d) 1/(365)3

2. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of
them, Ajit and Mukherjee, are never together?
(a) 120 (b) 240
(c) 360 (d) 480

3. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in
16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes in 13
days. In how many days C alone will do the work.
(a) 16 (c) 24
(c) 36 (d) 48

4. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of
radius r. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path
(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path
(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path

5. Consider the following geological phenomea:

Development of a fault

Movement along a fault

Impact produced by volcanic eruption

Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart
at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m.
and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping.
When do the two cars cross each other?
(a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m.
(c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m.

7. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many
different ways can this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 39
(c) 93 (d) 69

8. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between
a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane.
The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) A straight line (b) An elliptical path
(c) A circular path (d) A parabolic path

9. How many 3 digit numbers can be formed with the digits 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9 if the digits
are not repeated
(a) 60 (b) 90
(c) 210 (d) 405

10. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is
(a) A new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India
(b) The name of supercomputer developed by India
(c) The name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of India
(d) A software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh

11. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal
to
(a) 2 g (b) 200 mg
(c) 200 microgram (d) Zero

11. Consider the following statements:

  • Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
  • Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics transmission.
  • A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the Internet only.


Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following statements:

  • Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
  • Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
  • ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.


Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and Sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel

15. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:

List – I (Biosphere Reserves)List – II (States)
A. Similipal
B. Dehong
C. Nokrek
D. Kanchenjunga
1. Sikkim
2. Uttaranchal
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Orrisa
5. Meghalya


(a) ABCD – 1354 (b) ABCD – 4521
(c) ABCD – 1524 (d) ABCD – 4351

16. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
(a) Liver (b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas (d) Spleen

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous
and feathery appearance
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds

18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to
Kolkata as port

19. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant force on
the car is:
(a) Driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) Resistance force in the direction of car’s motion
(c) An inclined force
(d) Equal to zero

20. Jupiter’s mass is mostly made up of:
(a) Helium (b) Argon
(c) Hydrogen (d) Xenon

21. The southwest monsoon occurs over major parts of India in the months from June to
September. The main cause of the monsoon:
(a) The land is cooler than the sea
(b) The centrifugal force deflects the wind
(c) The land is warmer than the sea
(d) Wind blows from North-east to south-west

22. Nitric acid does not react with :
(a) Copper (b) Silver
(c) Iron (d) Gold

23. Silver halides are used in photo-graphic plates because they are:
(a) Oxidised in air
(b) Colourless
(c) Easily soluble in hypo solution
(d) Readily reduced by light

24. The theory of ionization was given by
(a) Rutherford (b) Cavendish
(c) Arrhenius (d) Faraday

25. Heavy water (Deuterium, D2O)is usually prepared from:
(a) Heavy hydrogen (b) Sea water only
(c) River water only (d) Ordinary water

26. A number of images of a candle flame can be seen in a thick mirror. The brightest
image is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Last

27. Hydrogen bomb is based on the phenomenon of:
(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Nuclear reaction
(d) None of the above

28. Sound is transmitted by longitudinal waves of compression and rarefaction through
an elastic medium. What might the quality of sound be when the listener is at a
great distance from the source as compared to being very close?
(a) The high-frequency component will be reduced
(b) The low frequency component will be reduced
(c) All frequencies will be reduced to the same extent
(d) There will be no difference

29. Viruses can disable computers. A computer virus can be transmitted one machine to
another if:
(a) They are used to run similar application
(b) They are used by same programme
(c) Floppy disks are exchanged between different computer
(d) They use different operating system

30. An atomic orbital having the quantum no. n=1 and l=1 will have the shape of:
(a) Ellipsoid (b) Dumb-bell
(c) Cone (d) Sphere

PART – B >>

  1. When CO2
    concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
    (a) Shallower and slow
    (b) There is no effect on breathing
    (c) Slow and deep
    (d) Faster and deeper
  2. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are
    (a) High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and
    a very young age distribution
    (b) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age
    distribution
    (c) High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth and a very young
    age distribution
    (d) High mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age
    distribution
  3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
    (a) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
    (b) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
    (c) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
    (d) Anopheles culifacies – leishmaniasis
  4. A major component of gobar gas is
    (a) Ammonia (b) Methane
    (c) Ethane (d) Butane
    Model Test Paper – 5 475
  5. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their
    (a) Power of adaptability in diverse habitat
    (b) property of producing large number of seeds
    (c) nature of self pollination
    (d) domestication by man
  6. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right
    angles to the funicle is
    (a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous
    (c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous
  7. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
    (a) at the mid secretory phase
    (b) just before the end of the secretory phase
    (c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
    (d) At the end of the proliferative phase
  8. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect
    (a) Tongue movements
    (b) gastrointestinal movements
    (c) pancreatic secretion
    (d) cardiac movements
  9. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that
    an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the
    site of
    (a) Atrioventricular bundle
    (b) Purkinje system
    (c) Sinuatrial node
    (d) Atrioventricular node
  10. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin
    content. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient
    has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
    (a) Carbon disulphide (b) Chloroform
    (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
  11. In which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator?
    (a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Tryptophanase
    (c) Lactic dehydrogenase (d) Tyrosinase
  12. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form cephalothorax, but in which
    one of the following classes, is the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
    (a) Insecta
    (b) Myriapoda
    (c) Crustacea
    (d) Arachnida and Crustacea
    476 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  13. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its
    deficiency disease?
    (a) Vitamin A – Fat -soluble – Night blindness
    (b) Vitamin K – Fat -soluble – Beri -beri
    (c) Vitamin A – Fat -soluble – Beri -beri
    (d) Vitamin K – Water -soluble – Pellagra
  14. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate
    (a) reacted with DDT
    (b) reacted with ammonia
    (c) reacted with CO2
    (d) Reacted with water
  15. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is
    (a) 20 µg/100 ml (b) 30 µg/100 ml
    (c) 4 – 6 µg/100 ml (d) 10 µg/100 ml
  16. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
    (a) Reception of pollen by stigma
    (b) Formation of pollen
    (c) Development of anther
    (d) Opening of flower bud
  17. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it
    flowered while in the other set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did
    not produce flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this
    plant?
    (a) Long day
    (b) Darkness neutral
    (c) Day neutral
    (d) Short day
  18. In which one of the following pairs is the specific characteristic of a soil not correctly
    matched?
    (a) Laterite – Contains aluminium compound
    (b) Terra rossa – most suitable for roses
    (c) Chernozems – Richest soil in the world
    (d) Black soil – Rich in calcium carbonate
  19. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur
    in the following order:
    (a) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation
    (b) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement
    (c) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap
    (d) Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap
    Model Test Paper – 5 477
  20. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
    (a) fishes were amphibious in the past
    (b) fishes evolved from frog -like ancestors
    (c) frogs will have gills in future
    (d) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
  21. Which one of the following hormones is a modified amino acid?
    (a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone
    (c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen
  22. In the resting state of the neutral membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients,
    if allowed, would drive
    (a) K+ into the cell (b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
    (c) Na+ into the cell (d) Na + out of the cell
  23. The maximum growth rate occurs in
    (a) Stationary phase (b) Senescent phase
    (c) Lag phase (d) Exponential phase
  24. Diversification in plant life appeared
    (a) Due to long periods of evolutionary changes
    (b) Due to abrupt mutations
    (c) Suddenly on earth
    (d) By seed dispersal
  25. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is
    called
    (a) Plantlet culture (b) Organ culture
    (c) Micropropagation (d) Macropropagation
  26. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
    (a) Indole acetic acid (b) Cytokinins
    (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene
  27. The most abundant element present in the plants is
    (a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen
    (c) Manganese (d) Iron
  28. Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) represents the following range of
    wavelength:
    (a) 500 – 600 nm (b) 450 – 950 nm
    (c) 340 – 450 nm (d) 400 – 700 nm
  29. A terrestrial animal must be able to
    (a) excrete large amounts of water in urine
    (b) conserve water
    (c) actively pump salts out through the skin
    (d) excrete large amounts of salts in urine
    478 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  30. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous
    for hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh?
    (a) 1/8 (b) 1 /32
    (c) 1 /16 (d) 1 /4
  31. Edible part of mango is
    (a) Endocarp (b) Receptacle
    (c) Epicarp (d) Mesocarp
  32. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the
    (a) Outer membrane (b) Inner membrane
    (c) Thylakoids (d) Stroma
  33. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of
    (a) Absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphere
    (b) Fermentation
    (c) Cohesion
    (d) Osmosis
  34. In the somatic cell cycle
    (a) In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original
    cell
    (b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
    (c) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
    (d) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
  35. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth
    supplement is known as
    (a) Phenotype (b) Holotype
    (c) Auxotroph (d) Prototroph
  36. Which of the following propagates through leaf-tip?
    (a) Walking fern (b) Sprout-leaf plant
    (c) Marchantia (d) Moss
  37. Common indicator organism of water pollution is
    (a) Lemna pancicostata
    (b) Eichhornia crassipes
    (c) Escherichia coli
    (d) Entamoeba histolytica
  38. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where
    (a) DNA-probes are required
    (b) Southern blotting is done
    (c) Allkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
    (d) Catalase is the key reagent
    Model Test Paper – 5 479
  39. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the
    chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
    (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
    (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
  40. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm
    cells in the resulting seed is
    (a) Tetraploidy (b) Pentaploidy
    (c) Diploidy (d) Triploidy
  41. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to
    (a) Hybrid seeds
    (b) Increased chlorophyll content
    (c) Mutations resulting in plant height reduction
    (d) Quantitative trait mutations
  42. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects
    damaging a crop is
    (a) Random mutations
    (b) Genetic recombination
    (c) Directed mutations
    (d) Acquired heritable changes
  43. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species:
    (a) A + G/ C + T
    (b) T + C/ G + A
    (c) G + C /A + T
    (d) A + C /T + G
  44. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
    (a) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
    (b) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
    (c) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
    (d) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
  45. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has
    (a) A saprophytic relationship with the alga
    (b) An epiphytic relationship with the alga
    (c) A parasitic relationship with the alga
    (d) A symbiotic relationship with the alga
  46. In oogamy, fertilization involves
    (a) A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete
    (b) A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
    (c) A large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
    (d) A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete)
    480 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  47. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
    (a) Cycas (b) Moss
    (c) Saccharomyces (d) Spirogyra
  48. In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface
    vary most?
    (a) Shrub land (b) Forest
    (c) Desert (d) Grassland
  49. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf?
    (a) rRNA (b) hnRNA
    (c) mRNA (d) tRNA
  50. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of
    (a) Thymine rich repeats
    (b) Cytosine rich repeats
    (c) Adenine rich repeats
    (d) Guanine rich repeats
  51. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to the
    change in
    (a) Protein structure
    (b) DNA replication
    (c) Protein synthesis pattern
    (d) RNA transcription pattern
  52. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication
    origin site and
    (a) RNA primers are involved
    (b) Is facilitated by telomerase
    (c) Moves in one direction of the site
    (d) Moves in bi-directional way
  53. Plants adapted to low light intensity have
    (a) Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
    (b) Higher rate of CO2
    fixation than the sun plants
    (c) More extended root system
    (d) leaves modified to spines
  54. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive
    atmosphere of the earth?
    (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
    (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
  55. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
    (a) Goat’s liver and Spirulina (b) Chocolate and green gram
    (c) Rice and hen’s egg (d) Carrot and chicken’s breast
    Model Test Paper – 5 481
  56. The most thoroughly studied of the known bacteria – plant interactions is the
    (a) Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
    (b) Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
    (c) Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
    (d) Plant growth stimulation by phosphate-solubilising bacteria
  57. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
    (a) Enhancer (b) Transgene
    (c) Promoter (d) Reporter
  58. The Ramachandran map is relevant in the study of
    (a) DNA structures
    (b) RNA structures
    (c) Protein structures
    (d) Carbohydrate structures
  59. Which one of the following pairs refers to paralagous proteins?
    (a) Rat myoglobin and rat hemoglobin
    (b) Rat myoglobin and mouse myoglobin
    (c) Rat myoglobin and mouse hemoglobin
    (d) Rat myoglobin and rat cytochrome
  60. t-RNAs in eukaryotes are transcribed by
    (a) RNA polymerase II
    (b) RNA polymerase I
    (c) RNA polymerase III
    (d) Reverse transcriptase
  61. Which technique will be most appropriate to purify dCTP from a mixture of dCTP,
    dCDP and dCMP?
    (a) Anion exchange chromatography
    (b) Cation exchange chromatography
    (c) Gel filtration chromatography
    (d) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
  62. Which enzyme breaks down cAMP to AMP?
    (a) Adenylyl cyclase
    (b) Phosphodiesterase
    (c) 5′ nucleotidase
    (d) cAMP-dependent protein kinase
  63. Of the following ecological relationships, which one is the most different from the
    other three?
    (a) Algae embedded in coral tissues
    (b) Salmonella in human. gastric tract
    (c) Cellulolytic bacteria in a termite gut
    (d) Pollen-collecting bees visiting flowers.
    482 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  64. Wild type E. coli was plated on a Rifampicin containing medium and incubated at
    37°C. Majority of the cells died; however, some colonies appeared after a few days.
    What is the most likely explanation for this observation?
    (a) Degradation of Rifampicin
    (b) Mutation in DNA polymerase III
    (c) Efflux of Rifampicin
    (d) Mutation in the b subunit of RNA polymerase
  65. Human genomic DNA is digested into fragments approximately 1 kb in size, denatured
    and then renatured. Which of the following statements is true?
    (a) All fragments will renature at the same rate
    (b) Fragments composed largely of repetitive DNA sequences will renature fastest
    (c) Fragments composed largely of non-repetitive DNA sequences will renature
    fastest
    (d) Fragments with high A:T content will renature fastest
  66. When an infectious agent was analyzed chemically, it was found to contain nitrogen
    and sulfur but not phosphorous. It is likely to be a
    (a) Bacterium (b) Virus
    (c) Mycoplasma (d) Prion
  67. Which of the following hormones does not act by a second messenger system?
    (a) Glucagon (b) Epinephrine
    (c) Luteinizing hormone (d) Aldosterone
  68. Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis carries out protein separation based on
    (a) Mass and hydrophobicity
    (b) Mass
    (c) Charge and mass properties
    (d) Disulphide bonding
  69. About 1 % individuals in a population suffer from a genetic disorder. The cause was
    traced to such individuals being homozygous recessive for a single locus with two
    alleles. The elder of the two children of a family (where both the parents are normal
    suffers from the disorder, while the younger one is normal). What is the probability
    that the third child of the family will be a normal daughter?
    (a) 49.5% (b) 12.5%
    (c) 37.5% (d) 25%
  70. A red-flowered tall parent plant (P1) was crossed to a true breeding red-flowered
    dwarf plant (P2) and half of the progenies obtained was red & tall and the other half
    red & dwarf. In the next generation, half of all these progenies segregated only for
    flower colour and the other half segregated only for height. The genotype of the P1 is
    (a) Heterozygous for color & height
    (b) Homozygous for color; heterozygous for height
    (c) Heterozygous for color; homozygous for height
    (d) Homozygous for color; homozygous for height

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 06 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

PART – A

  1. Between 00:30 hrs on 1st January, 1801 to 23:30 hrs on 31st December 2000, how
    many times did the sun rise in Bangalore?
    (a) 73000 (b) 73050
    (c) 73049 (d) 73051
  2. A mammalian cell line grows as a monolayer in a cell culture. Individual cells are
    disc-shaped, with a diameter of 1 micrometer. A colony made up of a single, dense
    layer of such cells is one centimeter in diameter. What is the approximate number of
    cells at the periphery of the colony
    (a) 31400 (b) 314159
    (c) 3143 (d) 10000
  3. Let us designate the four hydrogen in the methane molecule as HA, HB, HC and HD.
    Imagine a plane passing through the central carbon, HA and HB and another plane
    passing through the central carbon, HC and HD. what is the angle between two
    planes-
    (a) 0° (b) 90°
    (c) 109.47° (d) 120°
  4. The oxygen consumption of a rat and a lobster were measured first after 1 hour at
    30°C and then after 1 hour at 15 °C. Which of the following lobster best describes the
    change in oxygen consumption from 30 °C to 15 °C ?
    (a) Increased in rat and decreased lobster
    (b) Decreased in rat and increased in lobster
    (c) Increased in rat and unchanged in lobster
    (d) Decreased in rat and unchanged in lobster
  5. The structures of enantiomers are
    (a) Superimposable on each other
    (b) Mirror images of each other
    (c) Related by a 2-fold symmetry
    (d) Exactly the same
    484 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  6. A solid object dropped from the top of a building takes 2 seconds to reach the ground.
    What is the best approximation for the height of the building in meters?
    (a) 10 (b) 20
    (c) 40 (d) 80
  7. The density of deuterated water is
    (a) Twice that of ordinary water
    (b) Less than that of ordinary water
    (c) Same as that of ordinary water
    (d) Slightly greater than that of ordinary water
  8. At the melting temperature of ice ( 0 °C) which statement is true?
    (a) The molar free energy difference between ice and water is zero
    (b) The entropy difference between ice and water is zero
    (c) Addition of salt will decrease the free energy of the solid phase more than that of
    the liquid phase
    (d) The mole fraction of ice at 0 °C is 1
  9. The weights of fish in a pond are observed to be normally distributed, with a mean
    weight of 10 kg and a standard deviation of 1 kg. What proportion of fish will be
    heavier than 12 kg at a 95% confidence level?
    (a) About 95% (b) About 33.3%
    (c) About 5% (d) About 2.5%
  10. Consider the equation px2+qx+r = 0. If rp = q2/ 4 then how many real solutions of this
    equation are possible?
    (a) 0 (b) 1
    (c) 2 (d) Infinite
  11. The female of a species of insects lays about 300 eggs in June-July. Half of them
    hatch successfully (equal proportion of males and females) by October. Forty percent,
    of the larvae form pupae by January, and adults emerge from one third of the pupae
    by March. Mating takes place during May, and 20% of the adult insects manage to
    mate successfully. Thereafter, all the adults die after the females have laid eggs in
    June-July. There are no sex specific differences in survival, mortality, successful
    completion of developmental stages and mating success. If 10 fertilized females are
    released in a very large enclosure in June-July 2001, how many eggs are likely to be
    laid during June-July 2005?
    (a) 48000 (b) 6000
    (c) 36000 (d) 24000
  12. Which of the following is a post-zygotic isolating mechanism in speciation
    (a) Behavioural isolation
    (b) Seasonal isolation
    (c) Fertilisation failure
    (d) Hybrid sterility
    Model Test Paper – 6 485
  13. If the pH of the parietal cells in the stomach is 7 and that of the lumen of the stomach
    is 1, then against what concentration difference do the parietal cells pump out protons?
    (a) 1,000,000 (b) 6
    (c) 60 (d) 700,000
  14. One of the angles between the diagonals of a rectangle is 60°. The lengths of the sides
    of the rectangle are in the ratio
    (a) 1: 6 (b) 1: ÷2
    (c) 1:.÷3 (d) 1:÷6
  15. Apart from the 20 naturally occurring amino acids, 700 ‘unnatural’ amino acids have
    been reported in the literature. If all the 720 were to be accommodated in the genetic
    code, what is the minimum number of bases needed in a codon?
    (a) 4 (b) 5
    (c) 6 (d) 7
  16. A stream is free of pollutants within a few miles downstream of a point at which it is
    being contaminated by a small amount of sewage. This is most likely the result of
    (a) Eutrophication (b) Decomposition
    (c) Photosynthesis (d) Succession
  17. Computers directly understand which language-
    (a) Assembly language (b) Machine language
    (c) BASIC (d) High level language
  18. Which among the following is a programming language-
    (a) SQL (b) Oracle
    (c) Sybase (d) LOGO
  19. Which among the Following is Data base management system-
    (a) MS-Word (b) MS-Excel
    (c) MS-Access (d) MS-PowerPoint
  20. The out come following equation would ben Æ • (1+ 2/n)n
    (a) e2 (b) e
    (c) e2 + 1 (d) e2 – 1
  21. f(x) = ax2 + bx + C
    g(x) = px2 + q + r
    f(x).g(x) = 0
    If a, b, c & p, q, r = real, then
    (a) ÷b2 – 4ac = 0 & ÷P2 – 4pr = 0
    (b) ÷b2 – 2ac = 0
    (c) b2 – 4ac = 0 & P2 – 4pr = 0
    (d) ÷P2 – 4pr = 0
    486 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  22. Which is the correct statement for a collapsing star-
    (a) Its gravitational force will decrease
    (b) It will stop emitting light
    (c) Its density increases
    (d) No changes in internal pressure are seen
  23. Our sun is a Young star. It will turn into_______ after 500 million years as
    (a) White dwarf (c) Red giant
    (b) Neutron star (d) Black hole
  24. An air bus take off from London to Paris departs at 4:00 PM Monday. When it crosses
    the Prime Meridian what will be time and Day
    (a) 4:00 PM Sunday (b) 4:00 PM Tuesday
    (c) 4:00 PM Monday (d) 4:00 AM Sunday
  25. Geological time scale is-
    (a) Sequence of geological events in different ages of past
    (b) Division of geological event in 24 hours
    (c) Period of formation of earth divided into million of years
    (d) Sequence of geological events not measured in exact time period.
  26. The surface of earth where life is possible is termed as-
    (a) Lithosphere (b) Biosphere
    (c) Ecosystem (d) Hydrosphere
  27. Fill the values of x and y in |xy| for Decimal number 9 in Binary codes-
    (a) x = 0, y = 0 (b) x = 0, y = 0
    (c) x = 1, y = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 0
  28. Bug, in computer terminology means-
    (a) Logical error
    (b) Syntax error
    (c) Organism effecting computer
    (d) High level Programming
  29. Consider the following programme and write the result that will print at end of
    programDo While A =/= 0
    If A >= B
    A = A–B
    Else
    B = B–A
    EndIf
    PRINT A, B
    (a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1
    (c) 1, 1 (d) 1, 0
    Model Test Paper – 6 487
  30. If there is double bond between A & T and triple bond between GC, then which
    sequence will be most stable at higher temperature-
    (a) ATTGTACCAAA (b) AATTATATATA
    (c) AGCAGAGAGTT (d) AGGCCGGCCCTA

PART – B >>

  1. A synthetic peptide has the sequence (Ala)10 and forms a right handed a helical
    structure. Its molecular weight is
    (a) 890 (b) 728
    (c) 1000 (d) 710
  2. The most abundant protein in human blood is
    (a) Transferrin (b) Albumin
    (c) g globulin (d) Hemoglobin
  3. Consider three polypeptides of 15 residues each. They adopt distinct conformations
    corresponding to right-handed a-helical structure, left-handed a-helical structure and
    single strand of a b-sheet structure. Considering the shortest distance between the
    first and the last residues as the length of the structure, which one of the following
    statements is true?
    (a) Right-handed a-helical structure is longest
    (b) Left-handed a-helical structure is longest
    (c) b-strand structure is longest
    (d) All the three polypeptides have identical length
  4. The absorption spectrum of a protein solution will always show a maximum at
    (a) 190 nm (b) 260 nm
    (c) 280 nm (d) 340 nm
  5. Long term reflex actions such as cycling and swimming are controlled by
    (a) Cerebellum (b) Spinal cord
    (c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebrum
  6. HIV replicates its genome using unique mechanisms. Which of the following statements
    about HIV is not correct?
    (a) HIV is an enveloped RNA virus
    (b) The virion contains an RNA dependent DNA polymerase
    (c) A DNA copy of the HIV genome integrates into host cell DNA
    (d) Virion contains an RNA dependent RNA polymerase
  7. A mutation that inactivates a trans-acting regulatory gene of a positively controlled
    operon would lead to
    (a) Hyper-expression of the operon
    (b) Expression of the operon is shut off
    (c) Constitutive expression
    (d) Delayed expression, comparable to that of the wild type at later stages of growth
  8. The coenzyme involved in oxidative decarboxylation is
    (a) Thiamine pyrophosphate (b) Biotin
    (c) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
    (d) Pyridoxal phosphate
  9. The term “zygotic induction” refers to
    (a) Embryogenesis of the fertilized egg
    (b) Process of fertilization
    (c) Prophage induction in a F – (F minus) recipient bacteria after Hfr strain mediated
    conjugation
    (d) Prophage entering the lytic cycle after UV irradiation of a lysogen
  10. Which of the following is common to both fatty acid synthesis and degradation?
    (a) The oxidation/reduction reactions occur between the a and the b carbons of the
    fatty acid
    (b) The biochemical nature of the reductant/oxidant
    (c) The intracellular location of the metabolic pathways
    (d) The nature of the two carbon unit
  11. The colour of flowers of an annual species of plants is controlled by a single locus with
    two alleles R and r, and the genotypes RR, Rr and IT are red, pink and white
    respectively. A large number of seeds from individuals with pink flowers were collected
    and planted on an island, where, because of absence of pollinators, only self-pollination
    is possible. What will be the most likely outcome after 25 years?
    (a) About 50% plants with red flowers, 50% with white flowers
    (b) Almost 100% plants with pink flowers
    (c) Red, pink and white flowered plants in a ratio of 1:2: 1
    (d) Red, pink and white flowered plants in equal proportion
  12. The fermentation of glucose by yeast normally yields
    (a) Lactic acid, CO2
    and 2 ATP
    (b) Ethanol, CO2
    and 36 ATP
    (c) Ethanol, CO2
    and 2 ATP
    (d) CO2
    , H2O and 36 ATP
  13. The Km of the enzyme for the substrate that gives the
    following Lineweaver-Burk plot is
    (a) 3.646
    (b) 0.734
    (c) 2.625
    (d) 1.361
  14. The synthesis of DNA was shown to be template dependent and semi-conservative.
    This would predict that
    (a) No organism can have a single-stranded genome
    (b) RNA cannot serve as the genome of any organism
    I/Vmax = 0.72 units
    Slope = 1.89 units
    (c) All single stranded genomes would be synthesized via a double-stranded
    intermediate
    (d) Template-independent DNA polymerases do not exist in nature
  15. Phage P1 lysate was raised on an E. Coli strain with a genotype Tn 10, A, B, C, D and used to transduce a wild type strain of E. coli. Transductants were selected on tetracycline (based on Tn 10) and then checked for the transfer of the remaining markers. Fifteen percent of the transductants were B and C , 40% were D but all of them were A+. Assuming that all of the markers were on one side of Tn 10, the order of the markers is
    (a) Tn 10, A, B, C and D
    (b) Tn 10, A, C, Band D
    (c) Tn 10, D, A, Band C
    (d) Tn 10, D, B, C and A
  16. ‘Kin selection’ is
    (a) The mating of relatives
    (b) The recognition of relatives in societal groups
    (c) A process of keeping young females while forcing young males out
    (d) A behavior that increases the survivorship of an individual’s relatives
  17. A laboratory-synthesized protein has an amino acid sequence same as that of human
    lysozyme but with all chiral residues in D-configuration. Which one of the following
    statements is false?
    (a) Such a protein will never fold into a compact shape
    (b) This protein will have left-handed a-helical regions in the places of right-handed
    a-helical regions in the natural lysozyme
    (c) This protein will not be functional with the natural substrates
    (d) This protein could form crystals
  18. Which one of the following genes is defective in patients suffering from severe
    combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)?
    (a) Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductor (CFTR)
    (b) Adenosine deaminase
    (c) Ribonucleotide reductase
    (d) a2-microglobulin
  19. Helium and Deuterium have the same
    (a) Number of protons
    (b) Protons to neutrons ratio
    (c) Number of electrons
    (d) Atomic mass
  20. Which of the following compounds is an end product of b-oxidation
    (a) Pyruvic acid (b) Acetyl CoA
    (c) Oxaloacetate (d) Alanine
    490 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  21. Non-polar amino acids are found mostly
    (a) In the core of the protein
    (b) On the surface of the protein
    (c) In a-helices
    (d) In no specific regions
  22. Which one of the following amino acids is most hydrophilic?
    (a) Glycine (b) Serine
    (c) Arginine (d) Cysteine
  23. Fatty acids yield more energy per mole than carbohydrates and proteins. This is
    because they
    (a) Have larger molecular weight
    (b) Are more non-polar
    (c) Are more reduced
    (d) Have more carbon atoms for CO2 production
  24. The relative viscosity of a protein solution is affected by
    (a) Temperature, shape and molecular weight
    (b) Temperature and molecular weight
    (c) Molecular weight and shape
    (d) Temperature and shape
  25. Which of the following statements regarding signaling is not true?
    (a) Steroid hormone-intracellular receptor complex binds to the regulatory sequence
    of certain genes
    (b) Chaperone proteins bind to the intracellular receptors in the absence of hormone
    ligands
    (c) Vitamin D acts via intracellular receptors
    (d) Intracellular receptors activate gene expression in the absence of ligand
  26. In animals, ritualized contests with little risk of serious injury or death to participants
    within the species lead to
    (a) Stable dominance hierarchy
    (b) Biological altruism
    (c) Instinctive behavior
    (d) Spread of recessive genes
  27. The residue histidine can act as a ligand for the heme iron in proteins such as
    myoglobin because
    (a) Histidine side chain has a pKa close to pH 5.0
    (b) One of the nitrogens has a lone pair of electn;ms available for coordination
    (c) The aromatic ring of the histidine can act favorably with the heme iron
    (d) Five membered rings have a favorable dipolar interactions with ferrous or ferric Ions
  28. Conversion of Testosterone to Estrogen is mediated by
    (a) Aromatase
    (b) 5-a reductase
    (c) 3-b-hydroxy-steroid dehydrogenase
    (d) Desmolase
  29. Which of the following is degraded upon treatment with RNase A?
    (a) DNA-RNA duplex
    (b) RNA-RNA duplex
    (c) Single stranded RNA
    (d) DNA-RNA duplex, RNA-RNA duplex and single stranded RNA
  30. Which one of the following statements with respect to Testosterone is not true?
    (a) Testosterone receptor mutant is embryonic lethal
    (b) Testosterone receptor is essential for male reproduction
    (c) Testosterone is produced in female rats
    (d) Testosterone is not essential for fetal growth
  31. In the genome of a eukaryotic organism, if all the four bases occur randomly, then
    which amino acid pair will occur least frequently in its proteome?
    (a) Methionine and Tryptophan
    (b) Arginine and Serine
    (c) Proline and Tryptophan
    (d) Glycine and Methionine
  32. Carboxypeptidase Y has the following kinetic parameters for a series of substrates.
    At very low substrate concentration, which of these substrates would be hydrolyzed
    most quickly?
    Substrate Kcat (s–1 ) Km (M)
    (a) Ala-He-Asp 2 × 10–1 3 × 10–2
    (b) Ala-Pro-Arg 5 × 10–3 2 × 10–6
    (c) Ala-Val-Gin 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3
    (d) Ala-Ile-Lys 5 × 10–1 1 × 10–5
  33. Some cells divide by budding. After budding, you have a mother cell and a daughter
    cell. If the mother cell cannot bud any more, the increase in cell number as a function
    of time will be
    (a) Exponential (b) Linear
    (c) Logarithmic (d) Hyperbolic
  34. Histones, proteins that playa role in packaging DNA, are characterized by a
    (a) High pI
    (b) Low pI
    (c) pI at 7
    (d) Hydrophobic surfaces
  35. Ketone bodies are formed due to
    (a) Breakdown in the p-oxidation pathway which would produce an excess of acetyl CoA
    (b) Inhibition of fatty acid activation and transport
    (c) Channelisation of oxaloacetate from the citric acid cycle to gluconeogenesis
    (d) Inhibition of cAMP production
  36. Ribozymes are known to catalyze reactions on
    (a) Phosphorus centers but not carbon centers
    (b) Carbon centers but not phosphorus centers
    (c) Both carbon and phosphorus centers
    (d) Neither carbon nor phosphorus centers
  37. Topological winding number (Tw) of two DNA strands in a covalently closed circular
    plasmid is 200. If the value of writhe (Wr) for the plasmid is zero, the linking number
    (Lk) is
    (a) –100 (b) 200
    (c) 100 (d) –200
  38. Administration of Estrogen to adult male rats results in
    (a) Decreased Testosterone production
    (b) Decreased Luteinizing hormone and Testosterone production
    (c) Increased Estrogen secretion in the testis
    (d) None of the above
  39. What is the [S] for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction which has an initial velocity of
    12.62 mole/litre/min, and the maximum velocity of 21.85 mole/litre/min, and a
    Michaelis-Menten constant of 3.88 mole/liter?
    (a) 2.51 mole/litre (b) 5.30 mole/litre
    (c) 0.24 mole/litre (d) 4.31 mole/litre
  40. When nonsense mutations occur in the reading frame of mRNA, protein synthesis
    gets terminated at the nonsense mutation to deliver a truncated polypeptide. However,
    in certain bacterial strains, this does not phappen; these bacterial cells are able to
    synthesize full-length polypeptide. This phenomenon is due to
    (a) Compensatory frame shift mutation that occurs elsewhere in the mRNA
    (b) Involvement of suppressor tRNAs
    (c) Polypeptide splicing at the broken point
    (d) Post-transcriptional editing of the nonsense mutation
  41. The sediment at the bottom of a lake contains small proportions of deuterium and l3C, the stable isotopes of hydrogen and carbon respectively. The methane produced by the methanogenic bacteria from the lake is subjected to complete combustion in air, which contains a small proportion of 170, to produce CO2 and H2O. How many distinct species of CO2 and H2O (i.e., compounds differing only in the atomic weights of the constituent atoms) will be formed?
    (a) 2 of CO2 and 3 of H2O
    (b) 4 of CO2 and 4 of H2O
    (c) 6 of CO2 and 6 of H2O
    (d) 3 of CO2 and 2 of H2O
  42. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that are
    (a) Small and inbred
    (b) Undergoing gene flow
    (c) Allopatric
    (d) Large and panmictic
  43. A DNA polymerase isolated from a novel bacterium was found to incorporate many
    errors during DNA synthesis. Which of the following activities would you predict to
    be missing from this enzyme?
    (a) 3′ to 5′ exonuclease activity
    (b) RNA primase activity
    (c) 5′ to 3′ exonuclease activity
    (d) 5′ to 3′ endonuclease activity
  44. When a mutation produces the first copy of a new, advantageous allele within a
    population of ‘wild-types’, the initial spread of this new allele through the population
    will be faster if it is
    (a) Dominant to the wild-type
    (b) Recessive to the wild-type
    (c) Co-dominant with the wild-type
    (d) Semi dominant with the wild-type
  45. The peptide, Ala-Arg-Gln-Met-Thr-Trp-Lys-Val, is treated with cyanogen bromide to
    produce
    (a) Ala-Arg-Gln-Met + Thr-Trp-Lys-Val
    (b) Ala-Arg-Gln-Met-Thr-Trp + Lys-Val
    (c) Ala-Arg + Gln-Met-Thr-Trp-Lys-Val
    (d) Ala-Arg-Gln + Met-Thr-Trp-Lys-Val
  46. Which of the following antibiotics is inactivated by neomycin phosphotransferase?
    (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol
    (c) Spectinomycin (d) Kanamycin
  47. Transmembrane domains of proteins are typically
    (a) b sheets (b) a helical
    (c) random coils (d) unstructured
  48. Isozymes can be characterized by
    (a) The different chemical reactions that they catalyze
    (b) The differences in their elution profile from a size-exclusion column
    (c) Differences in their amino acid sequences
    (d) All of the above
    494 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  49. The absorbance of 0.02mM ATP solution at 260nm with a cuvette having a path
    length of 0.5 cm is 0.154. Therefore, the molar absorption coefficient of ATP is
    (a) 15400 (b) 7700
    (c) 770 (d) 1540
  50. Using standard 20 amino acids, how many tripeptide sequences can be designed with
    at least one glycyl residue in every sequence?
    (a) 40 (b) 4000
    (c) 800 (d) 8000
  51. N-linked Glycosylation can occur in a protein containing the amino acid sequence
    (a) Asn- Thr- Thr-Gly (b) Asn-Asn-Asn-Gly
    (c) Glu-Asn- Thr-Gly (d) Ser-Ser-Ser-Gly.
  52. Introns are released as lariats during splicing of
    (a) Pre-mRNA transcripts and Group II intron containing transcripts
    (b) Pre-mRNA transcripts only
    (c) Group I intron containing transcripts
    (d) tRN A precursors
  53. Two cysteine residues in a protein form a disulfide bond. Which one of the following
    statements is false?
    (a) The shortest distance between the two residues will be between the sulfur atoms
    of each residue
    (b) Disulfide formation is normally favored at pH5 compared to pH8
    (c) Neither of the sulfur atoms involved in the disulfide bridge can be protonated
    (d) Disulfide bond formation decreases the conformational entropy of the unfolded
    state of the protein
  54. Urea is a water soluble product of nitrogen metabolism. How many hydrogen bonds
    can it form with water molecule
    (a) 3 (b) 4
    (c) 6 (d) 2
  55. Two identical twin adults look alike and they have been brought up in the same
    environment. If a crime has been committed by one of them, which test will identify
    the criminal with more certainty?
    (a) DNA finger printing
    (b) Blood group testing
    (c) Finger print testing
    (d) Serotyping
  56. Membrane protein biogenesis initiates in the following compartment.
    (a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    (b) Golgi
    (c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    (d) Endosomes
    Model Test Paper – 6 495
  57. What is the number of hydrogen bonds in a double helical B-DNA structure of 100
    base pairs with 20 adenines and 10 thymines in one of the two strands?
    (a) 200 (b) 230
    (c) 270 (d) 300
  58. Which one of the following amino acids has chirality at the side chain?
    (a) Threonine (b) Cysteine
    (c) Valine (d) Proline
  59. Which amino acid substitution will not result in a change in the mass spectrum of a
    peptide.
    (a) Arg to Lys (b) Ser to Thr
    (c) Ile to Leu (d) Asn to Met
  60. In species with two sexes, “males” are defined by which of the following characters?
    (a) Males have brighter colouration than females
    (b) Males have smaller gametes compared to females
    (c) Males are larger than females
    (d) Males defend territories while females brood the eggs
  61. Virally infected cells can be killed directly by
    (a) B cells (b) Basophils
    (c) NK cells (d) Eosinophils
  62. Which one of the following [3H] precursors can be used to monitor biosynthesis of
    DNA in activated lymphocytes in culture?
    (a) Thymidine tri-phosphate
    (b) Thymidine di-phosphate
    (c) Deoxythymidine tri-phosphate
    (d) Thymidine
  63. Actin filaments are involved in all of the following except
    (a) Amoeboid movement
    (b) Cytoplasmic streaming
    (c) Contraction of smooth muscles
    (d) Flagellar movement in bacteria
  64. The Hardy-Weinberg Law describes
    (a) Genotype frequencies of a population when evolutionary forces are not acting
    (b) How sexual reproduction would change the relative gene frequencies in a
    population
    (c) How mutations occur and balance each other
    (d) Genotype frequencies of a population when evolutionary forces are acting
  65. The receptor for which of the following hormones is a transcription factor?
    (a) Insulin (b) Glucagon
    (c) Estradiol (d) Adrenalin
    496 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  66. You would expect a cell with an extensive Golgi apparatus to
    (a) Synthesize large amounts of ATP
    (b) Secrete large amounts of protein
    (c) Synthesize large amounts of steroids
    (d) Synthesize excess phospholipids
  67. Radioactive iodine can be incorporated into
    (a) Serine (b) Threonine
    (c) Tyrosine (d) Leucine
  68. A Graafian follicle is
    (a) An immature developing follicle
    (b) A mature follicle ready to ovulate
    (c) A follicle undergoing apoptosis
    (d) Ovulated follicle
  69. Which one of the following techniques was used in elucidation of the Watson-Crick
    double helical model of DNA?
    (a) Entirely by theoretical calculations and by using Chargaff’s rule without performing any experiment.
    (b) X-ray diffraction by single crystals
    (c) X-ray diffraction by quasi crystals
    (d) X-ray diffraction by fibers
  70. Which one of the following interactions between the side chains of amino acids in a
    protein structure is most favourable?
    (a) Asp – Glu (b) Arg – Lys
    (c) Lys – Val (d) Trp – Phe

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 07 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

1. In a substitution nucleophilic first order reaction (SN1) the stereochemical outcome is

(a) Raemisation (b) Inversion of configuration (c) Retention of configuration (d) Difficult to predict

2. When irradiated with ultraviolet light Chlorine (Cl2 ) reacts with tetrachloroethylene. But under similar condition when Oxygen (O2 ) is vigorously bubbled through the solution the reaction

(a) becomes more violent (b) does not get affected (c) slows down (d) stops

3. Which of the following compounds is optically inactive?

(a) Lactic acid (b) 2-Methyl propionic acid (c) Tartaric acid (d) Butyric acid

4. Addition of excess bromine (Br2 ) to 1,4-pentadine will yield

(a) Only 4,5 dibromo 1-pentene (b) Only 1,2,4,5-tetra bromo pentene (c) Mixture of (a) and (b) (d) There will be no reaction

5. If you want to synthesize 1-Phenyl ethanol from phenyl magnesium bromide you will have to add

(a) Water to it (b) Formaldehyde to it (c) Acetaldehyde to it (d) Acetone to it

6. When you will treat phenol with dilute HNO3 at 20 °C, you will get

(a) Only ortho nitro phenol (b) Only para nitro phenol (c) Mixture of ortho and para nitro phenol (d) Only 2,4,6 trinitro phenol

7. Soaps are

(a) Esters of fatty acids (b) Metal salts of fatty acids (c) Glyceryl esters of fatty acids (d) Salts of fatty acids with organic bases

8. Natural rubber is a polymer of

(a) Butadiene (b) Isoprene (c) Chloroprene (d) Nesprene

9. Ethylene when treated with dilute alkaline KMnO4 forms

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethylene glycol (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethane

10. EDTA is used as

(a) Oxidized agent (b) Reducing agent (c) Chelating agent (d) Alkylating agent

11. Linkage present in cellulose molecule is

(a) b (1 –> 4) (b) a ( 1 –> 4) (c) a (1 –> 6) (d) both (b) and (c)

12. Blocking action of enzyme through blocking its active site is

(a) Allosteric inhibition (b) Feedback inhibition (c) Competitive inhibition (d) Non-competitive inhibition

13. Which one of the following is without coenzyme activity ?

(a) Vitamin E (b) Thiamine (c) Biotin (d) Riboflavin

14. Active transport

(a) Releases energy (b) Require energy (c) Produces energy (d) Produces toxic material

15. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is

(a) G1, S, G2, M (b) G1, G2, S, M (c) M, S, G1, G2 (d) G1, G2, M, S

16. 0.1 M acetic acid is mixed with 02 M sodium acetate. Give that pKa of Acetic acid is 4.76, the pH of the mixture will be nearly

(a) 4.5 (b) 5.0 (c) 5.5 (d) 6.0

17. The scalar product of two vectors (u, u2, u3) (V1, V2, V3) is equal to

(a) u1V1 + u2V2 + u3V3 (b) u1 v2 + u2v1 + U3V3 (c) u3v1, + U2V2 + u1v3 (d) u3v2 + u2v1 + u1v2

18. The determinant of a singular matrix

(a) Is equal to 0 (b) Is greater than 0 (c) Is less than 0 (d) Can be either greater than, equal to or less than 0

19. If the differential equation is stiff

(a) It should be solved by Gear’s method (b) Enters method (c) 2nd order Rung-Kutta method (d) Cannot be solved

20. The path of a projectile

(a) is parabola (b) is hyperbola (e) is straight line (d) depends on the angle of throw

21. The probability of a man hitting a target is ¼. The number of times he must fire so that the probability of his hitting the target at least once is greater than 2/3 is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Infinity

22. The number of spectral lines emitted by atomic hydrogen excited to the nth energy level is

(a) n(n + 1)/2 (b) n(n – 1)/2 (c) n 2/2 (d) n(n – 1)

23. A piece of ice slides down at 45° incline in twice the time if it takes to slide down a frictionless 45° incline. The coefficient of friction between the ice and the incline it

(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) 2 ½

24. A bucket of water is hung from a spring balance. A piece of iron is suspended into the water without touching the sides from an independent support. The reading on the spring balance will

(a) increase (b) decrease (c) not change] (d) decrease with depth of immersion of iron piece

25. Which is not an programming language-

(a) BASIC (b) C (c) MS-WORD (d) LOGO 500

26. Number of values that can be stored in 8 bits are-

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 64 (d) 256

27. If 11×11=100. Then which statement is correct-

(a) Left hand side is binary and right is octal (b) Left hand side is binary and right is ternary (c) Left hand side is hexadecimal and right is octal (d) Left hand side is binary and right is also binary

28. Consider the following truth table. P Q P The value of A and B will be-
(a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1
(c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1

  1. A certain planet is revolving in a fixed orbit. If the radius of its orbit in increased four
    times then its mean surface temperature will decrease-
    (a) 1 (b) 2
    (c) 4 (d) 16
  2. Charge density is more at poles because-
    (a) Magnetic field is parallel to poles
    (b) Magnetic field is parallel to equator
    (c) Magnetic field is perpendicular to poles
    (d) Magnetic field is perpendicular to equator

PART – B >>

1. Viroids differ from viruses in being
(a) Naked ANA molecules only
(b) Naked DNA molecules only
(c) Naked DNA packaged with viral genomes.
(d) Satellite ANA packaged with visual genome

2. A virus can be made radioactive by
(a) culturing the virus in a medium of 32P
(b) culturing the viruses on a medium of potato, dextrose and 32P
(c) providing 32P to virus when they are about to attack the bacteria
(d) providing 32P to a bacterium which have been infected by a virus

3. A short length of double stranded DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120 cytosine
bases. The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
(a) 60 (b) 120
(c) 240 (d) 480

4. Besides having C, H, O which of these may also contain N, S & P ?
(a) Protein (b) Fat
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamins

5. Which of the following element plays an important role in nitrogen fixation?
(a) Manganese (b) Molybdenum
(c) Zinc (d) Copper

6. Specificity of an enzyme depends upon
(a) Active site (b) Linear sequence
(c) Km (d) Turn over number

7. Sulphur containing Amino acid is
(a) Valine (b) Leucine
(c) Methionine (d) Histidine

8. Viruses are
(a) Cellular organisms
(b) Non-cellular organisms
(c) Unicellular organisms
(d) Cellular without wall

9. Which of the following does not contain both DNA and RNA ?
(a) Yeast (b) Bacteria
(c) Mycoplasma (d) Virus

10. Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) is used while separating proteins by polyacrylanide
gel electrophoresis because
(a) It helps in solubilization of proteins thereby making it easier to separate
(b) It binds to proteins and confers uniform negative charge density thereby making
them move during electrophoresis
(c) Decreases the surface tension of the buffer used for electrophoresis
(d) Stabilizes the proteins

11. Absorption of UV radiation by proteins and nucleic acids is due to transition of Electrons
between the
(a) Vibrational energy levels
(b) Rotational energy levels
(c) Nuclear energy levels
(d) Electronic energy levels

12. Which of these statements is true?
(a) In a pyramid of numbers, the population size usually gets smaller as the trophic
level increases.
(b) In a pyramid of biomass, the weight of a lower trophic level is the same as the
level above it.
(c) In a pyramid of energy, only about 40% of the energy at one level is available for
the next trophic level.
(d) The law of conservation, which can be applied to the pyramid of energy, means
that energy is constantly created and destroyed.

13. Which of these statements about the amount of food production after 20° C is true?
(a) Food production stops as temperatures increase beyond 20° C.
(b) Food production continues to increase as temperatures increase beyond 20° C.
(c) Food production drops drastically as temperatures increase beyond 20° C.
(d) Food production remains the same as temperatures increase beyond 20° C.

14. Which of these organisms breaks down and releases nutrients from other dead
organisms?
(a) Producers (b) Decomposers
(c) Herbivores (d) Carnivores

15. Which of these is NOT an example of a terrestrial ecosystem?
(a) Volcano site (b) Garden plot
(c) Rotting log (d) Human skin

16. What is the difference between mutualism and parasitism?
(a) Mutualism means that one member of a species thrives at the expense of the
member of the species. Parasitism means that one member of a species thrives
at the expense of the member of the species.
(b) Mutualism means that one member of a species benefits without harming or
benefiting the member of another species. Parasitism means that both species’
members benefit from the relationship.
(c) Mutualism mean that both members of a species benefit from living together.
Parasitism means that one member of a species benefits without harming or
benefiting the member of another species.
(d) Mutualism means both members of a species benefit from living together.
Parasitism means that one member of a species thrives at the expense of the
member of the species.

17. Based on the data in the graph, which of the following statements is true?
(a) There is no food production happens at 10° C.
(b) Food production is the smallest at about 20° C.
(c) Food production is the greatest at about 30° C.
(d) Food production at 40° C is about 5 mg of glucose per hour.

18. Which of these organisms uses light energy to manufacture food for itself?
(a) A heterotroph
(b) An autotroph
(c) A carnivore
(d) An omnivore

19. Which of the following statements about the biosphere is true?
(a) Ecologists never study animal in Earth’s biosphere.
(b) The physical environment of Earth’s biosphere is the only factor in influencing
living things.
(c) Living things in Earth’s biosphere are affected by nonliving things.
(d) Earth’s biosphere includes the portion of Earth within 1 mile of the surface.

20. A relationship among organisms where one species benefits while the other species
neither benefits nor is harmed is called __.
(a) Mutualism
(b) Predation
(c) Parasitism
(d) Commensalism

21. A DNA solution of 100µM concentration when placed in a cuvette of path length 1 cm
gave an absorbency of 0.66. The extinction coefficient of DNA is-
(a) 6.6 × 103 (b) 0.66 × 103
(c) 1.5 × 10–4 (d) 6.6 ×10 –3

22. Trace of a matrix is
(a) Some of the elements in the main diagonal
(b) Some of the elements in all the diagonals
(c) Value of determinant
(d) None of the above

23. Formation of alpha helix in proteins is promoted by
(a) Glutamic acid, arginine and leucine
(b) Valine, leucine and phenylalanine
(c) Proline, glycine and aspartic acid
(d) Asparagine and serine

24. The major Source of stability of the DNA Double helix structure is
(a) Hydrogen bonding between bases
(b) Screening of phosphate changes by counter ions
(c) Stacking interaction of neighboring basis
(d) Solvation of phosphates

25. Urea acts as a protein denaturant because it binds to the
(a) Charged residues of proteins
(b) Hydrophobic residues of proteins
(e) Peptide groups of proteins
(d) CH2 group of the protein backbone

26. In Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy the resonance phenomenon is observed
after subjecting the nucleus under Question by one of the following electromagnetic
radiations.
(a) Infrared (b) X-rays
(c) Radio frequency (d) Microwaves

27. Thermodynamics dictate that entropy, a measure of disorder in a system increase
with every spontaneous process. Living system is highly ordered as well as
spontaneous. This means that
(a) Thermodynamics does not apply to living systems
(b) Living systems increase the entropy of the surroundings
(c) Living systems decrease the entropy of their surroundings
(d) Living systems are not really ordered systems

28. Highly cooperative binding of a ligand to multiple binding sites on a macromolecule
is best demonstrated by
(a) Adair equation (b) Hill Plot
(c) Lineweaver-Burk Plot (d) Arrhenius Plot

29. A hybridoma cell secreting mouse monoclonal antibodies can be generated by
(a) Fusing spleen cells from immune mice with any cell from that mice
(b) Culturing B cells in the presence of B cell growth factors
(c) By transforming splenic B cells from an immune mouse with Epstein Barr virus
(d) By fusing spleen cells from an immune mice with an appropriate plasmacytoma cell line

30. A virus is growing inside a B cell. The Viral antigens
(a) Cannot be presented to T cells under that condition
(b) Will be presented to T cells in association with MHC-I molecule
(c) Can be presented to T cells in association with both MHC-I and MHC-II molecules
(d) The virus has to use that B cell before any antigen presentation can take place

31. Super antigens stimulate
(a) Only T cells by binding to TCA in the absence of antigen presenting cells
(b) Can stimulate T, B and any other type of cells
(c) Only T cells by binding to the Vb domain of T cells receptor and the MHC-II
molecule an antigen presenting cells
(d) Only T cells by binding to CD2 molecules

32. For developing a candidate vaccine for malaria
(a) We should identify several T cell and B cell epitopes which can elicit protective
response in a large population
(b) We should identify only few T cell epitopes of the parasite
(c) We should identify only few B cell epitopes of the parasite
(d) We should identify epitopes which can induce antibody response in the host

33. In a chemical reaction, transition-state species have free energies
(a) Lower than either the reactants or the products
(b) Higher than either the reactants or the product
(c) Lower than the reactants, but higher than the products
(d) Higher than the reactants, but lower than the products

34. More free energy is released during the citric acid cycle than during glycolysis, but
only 1 mole of ATP is produced for each mole of acetyl CoA that enters the cycle.
What happens to most of tile remaining free energy that is produced duril1g the
citric acid cycle?
(a) It is used to synthesize GTP
(b) It is used to reduce electron carriers
(c) It is lost as heat
(d) It is used to reduce pyruvate

35. The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a
Protein is
(a) Protein kinase (b) Phosphorylase
(c) Phosphatase (d) ATPase

36. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
(a) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA
(b) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA
(c) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA
(d) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA

37. Which of the following is FALSE in comparing prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis
(a) The nuclear envelope disassembles in both
(b) The chromosomes Condense in both
(c) Each chromosome has two chromatids in both
(d) Tetrads form in both

38. Once transcribed the eukaryotic primary transcript typically undergoes substantial
alteration that includes.
(a) Fusion into circular forms known as plasmids
(b) Linkage to histone molecules
(c) Union with ribosomes
(d) Tetrads form in both

39. All of the following arc potential control mechanisms for regulation of gene expression
in eukaryotic organisms EXCEPT
(a) Gene amplification
(b) The degradation of mRNA
(c) The lactose operon
(d) Transcription

40. It is theoretically possible for a gene from any organism to function in any other
organism. Why is this possible?
(a) All organisms have similar nuclei
(b) All organisms have the same genetic code
(c) All organisms are made up of cells
(d) All organisms have transfer RNA

41. DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a membrane via a procedure called
Southern blotting. The purpose of Southern blotting is to
(a) Analyze the RFLPs in the DNA
(b) Separate out the PCRs’
(c) Permanently attach the. DNA fragments to a substrate
(d) Separate the two complementary DNA strands

42. Influenza viruses require the presence of the nucleus in their host cells because
(a) They use reverse transcriptase to make a cDNA which is integrated into the host genome
(b) They scavenge capped fragments from host mRNA in the nucleus to use as
primers for viral mRNA
(c) They use the host RNA polymerase II to transcribe viral mRNAs.
(d) They scavenge poly [A] tails from host mRNAs in the nucleus

43. HIV is the causative agent of AIDS and is a member of the Lentivirus genus of the
family Retroviridae. Which of the following features of HIV makes it different from
other members of this family?
(a) HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into cDNA
(b) HIV infects human cells that are CD4+
(c) HIV is enveloped
(d) The genomic RNA of HIV is 5′ capped and 3′ polyadenylated

44. Which of the following vectors can carry the longest piece of foreign DNA?
(a) Plasmids
(b) Bacteriophage
(c) Cosmids
(d) Yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs)

45. DNA and RNA synthesis polymerization [of deoxynucleotides] which takes place
(a) In a 3′ to 5′ direction
(b) In a 5′ to 3′ direction
(c) In either (or both) directions
(d) DNA in 5′ to 3′ and RNA in 3′ to 5′

46. TATA boxes and Pribnow boxes are components of
(a) Operators (b) Promoters
(c) Enhancers (d) Activators

47. The RNA in the cell with the greatest sequence diversity is
(a) Messenger RNA (b) Ribosomal RNA
(c) Transfer RNA (d) (a) and (c)

48. During the overall process of protein synthesis, amino acids become covalently attached
to
(a) Messenger RNA (b) Ribosomal RNA
(c) Transfer RNA (d) More than one of the above

49. Proteins whose binding to DNA acts to prevent transcription are known as
(a) Activators (b) Operators
(c) Repressors (d) Transcription factors

50. Which of the following genes is not common to all retroviruses?
(a) Pal (b) Env
(c) Src (d) Gag

51. The presence of an extra chromosome in a eukaryotic cell is most likely due to
(a) Linkage (b) Fertilization
(c) Transposition (d) Non-disjunciton

52. In fruitflies, the autosomal gene R causes red eyes and an alternative allele r causes
white eyes. A testcross is done with a fly that is Rr. What percent of the offspring can
be expected to have white eyes?
(a) 0% (b) 25%
(c) 50% (d) 75%

53. Which of the following is a function of a singal peptide?
(a) To direct DNA polymerase to a site on DNA
(b) To direct RNA polymerase to a site on DNA
(c) To direct a ribosome to insert a growing portein into the E.R.
(d) To terminate translation on an mRNA

54. Which of the following is incorporated in the model of logistic population growth but
NOT in the exponential population growth model?
(a) Change in population size over time
(b) Maximum sustainable population size
(c) Population birth rate
(d) Population death rate

55. Which of the following is the best example of competitive exlusion?
(a) Two fish species cannot live in the same habitat
(b) An introduced plant species will exclude a similar native species
(c) Two parasite species cannot occupy the same host
(d) Two bird species in the same forest cannot use the same set of resorces

56. Addition of detergents containing phosphates can disturb aquatic ecosystems because
the phosphates
(a) Kill bacteria (b) Poison fish
(c) Stimulate algae growth (d) Fertilize crop plants

57. A genetic defect prevents guard cells from closing stomata in the leaves of a plant.
This plant will most likely have excessive __
(a) CO2 in its leaves (b) O2 in its leaves
(c) Nitrogen fixation (d) Loss of water

58. A hollow ball of cells best describes a
(a) Blastula (b) morula
(c) Gastrula (d) Gamete

60. In a nephron of the human kidney, urea can normally leave the and enter the _.
(a) Collecting duct / descending loop of Henle
(b) Collecting duct / ascending loop of Henle
(c) Ascending loop of Henle/ descending loop of Henle
(d) Ascending loop of Henle / collecting duct

61. In one complete turn of the Krebs cycle, what is the maximum number of ATP
molecules that can be produced in the Krebs cycle itself?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3

62. Which of the following do chloroplasts and mitochondria NOT have in common?
(a) ATP synthase (b) Electons transport chain
(c) ATP (d) NADH

63. Microfilaments are part of the structure of
(a) Cilia (b) Mitotic spindles
(c) Cell cleavage furrows (d) Flagella

64. The pH of human blood is slightly basic. Which of the following is most likely to be
the pH of human blood?
(a) 10.6 (b) 7.4
(c) 7.0 (d) 6.4

65. Euchromatin contains
(a) Single-copy genetical1y-active DNA
(b) Repetitive and genetically inactive sequences
(c) Single-copy, genetically-inactive DNA
(d) Repetitive and genetically active sequences

66. Centromeres are directly involved in
(a) DNA replication (b) Transcription
(c) DNA repair (d) Chromosome segregation

67. The transcriptional initiation site usually starts with
(a) AG (b) GC
(c) AT (d) AC

68. A stretch of double-stranded DNA contains 1000 base pairs, and its base composition
is 71 % G + C. How many thymine residues are in this region of DNA?
(a) 270 (b) 280
(c) 290 (d) 300

69. A 5-month-old male presents with seizures and delayed development. Upon newborn
screen he was detected to have hyper phenyl alaninemia and is on a phenylalaninerestricted, synthetic diet. The most likely cause for his current symptoms is a
(a) defect in tetrabydrofolate reductase
(b) defect in dihydropteridine reductase
(c) tyrosine deficiency
(d) tryptophan deficiency

70. Coding regions of eukaryotic gene that encode polypeptides are called
(a) hnRNAs (b) Exons
(c) Enhancers (d) Leader peptide

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 08 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

PART – A

  1. For purifying drinking water alum is used
    (a) For coagulation of mud particles
    (b) To kill bacteria
    (c) To remove salts
    (d) To remove gases
  2. A weather balloon is not fully inflated on the ground because
    (a) If the balloon is fully inflated, it may not remain stable in a storm
    (b) The air inside the balloon expands as it rises and may burst
    (c) It cannot withstand the outside pressure if fully inflated
    (d) None of these
  3. Vitamin BI2 is most useful for combating
    (a) Anaemia (b) Goitre
    (c) Night blindness (d) Rickets
  4. The volume of which of the following materials decreases when it is heated from 0° C to 5°C ?
    (a) Air (b) Copper
    (c) Water (d) Mercury
  5. On a night when the sky is clear, the temperature may dip considerably; on a cloudy night the temperature will usually dip much less. The reason for this difference is that
    (a) the clear sky allows radiant energy to escape readily from the earth
    (b) on a cloudy night the clouds are warm and therefore retard the cooling
    (c) the clear sky allows the cold of outer space to reach the earth
    (d) currents of air carry the heat away from the earth on a clear night
  6. Which of the following chemicals is useful in photography?
    (a) Aluminium hydroxide (b) Potassium nitrate
    (c) Silver bromide (d) Sodium chloride
  7. The purest form of water can be obtained from
    (a) A deep tubewell (b) A running stream
    (c) A hot water spring (d) A heavy shower of rain
  8. Which of the following vitamins is stored in the liver?
    (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
    (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K
  9. Which of the following is needed by a person suffering from diabetes?
    (a) Antibiotics (b) Insulin
    (c) Penicillin (d) Streptomycin
  10. An element common to all acids is
    (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
    (c) Sulphur (d) Chlorine
  11. Which of the following statements relating to sound and light is true ?
    (a) Light is a form of kinetic energy, whereas sound is a form of potential energy
    (b) Light can be reflected but sound cannot be
    (c) Light travels faster in air than does sound
    (d) Sound travels in waves but light does not
  12. Radioactive substances can be produced readily in
    (a) An electron gun (b) An atomic pile
    (c) A transistor (d) A Wilson cloud chamber
  13. The method of estimating the age of the crust of the earth, which is now believed to
    be the most accurate, makes use of the rate of
    (a) Accumulation of sedimentary beds
    (b) Accumulation of salt in the ocean
    (c) Atomic disintegration (radioactivity)
    (d) Loss of heat by the earth
  14. When a given amount of air is cooled
    (a) The amount of moisture it can hold decreases
    (b) Its absolute humidity decreases
    (c) Its relative humidity remains constant
    (d) Its absolute humidity increases
  15. With the present-day advance in medical techniques, transplants are possible in all of
    the following except
    (a) Artery (b) Bone
    (c) Cornea (d) Kidney
  16. A transistor is most likely to be found in a
    (a) Fuse (b) Fluorescent lamp
    (c) Hearing aid (d) Wrist watch
  17. Steel is more elastic than rubber because
    (a) Its density is high
    (b) It is a metal
    (c) Ratio of stress to strain is more
    (d) Ratio of stress to strain is less
  18. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to the smallest
    possible area due to the
    (a) Force of adhesion (b) Force of friction
    (c) Centrifugal force (d) Force of cohesion
  19. If speed of rotation of the earth increases, weight of the body
    (a) Increases (b) Remains unchanged
    (c) Decreases (d) may decrease or increase
  20. The buoyancy depends on
    (a) The shape of the body
    (b) The mass of the body
    (c) The mass of the liquid displaced
    (d) The depth to which the body is immersed
  21. The working of a rocket is based on the principle of
    (a) Electricity (b) Kepler’s Law
    (c) Newton’s Law (d) Conservation of momentum
  22. Friction can be reduced by changing over from
    (a) Sliding to rolling
    (b) Rolling to sliding
    (c) Potential energy to kinetic energy
    (d) Dynamic to static
  23. It takes 30 days to fill a laboratory dish with bacteria. If the size of the bacteria
    doubles each day, how long will it take for the bacteria to fill one half of the dish
    (a) 10 days (b) 15 days
    (c) 29 days (d) 20 days
  24. A tap can fill a cistern in 8 hours and another can empty it in 16 hours. If both the taps are opened simultaneously, the time (in hours) to fill the tank will be
    (a) 8 (b) 10
    (c) 16 (d) 24
  25. A and B can together do a piece of work in 12 days. B and C together can do the same work in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days, and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many days will C alone be able to do the work ?
    (a) 16 (b) 24
    (c) 36 (d) 48
  26. A certain distance is covered by a cyclist at a certain speed. If a jogger covers half the distance in double the time, the ratio of the speeds of the jogger to that of the cyclist is
    (a) 1:4 (b) 4:1
    (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1
  27. If a man travels at 30 krn/hr, he reaches his destination late by 10 minutes, but if he travels at 42 krn/hr, then he reaches 10 minutes earlier. Therefore the distance travelled by him is
    (a) 36 km (b) 35 km
    (c) 40 km (d) 45 km
  28. Receiving a file from another computer over network line is called-
    (a) Log in (b) Downloading
    (c) Copying in (d) Uploading
  29. IP address is made up of –
    (a) 32 bits (b) 16 bits
    (c) 8 bits (d) 4 bits
  30. Consider the following program P=0
    Q=0
    DOWHILE (i=5) i=i+1
    A=A+3
    B=B+2
    PRINT A,B

    (a) 10, 15 (b) 12, 18
    (c) 18, 12 (d) 15,10

PART – B >>

  1. Which one of the following conditions differentiates eukaryotic DNA replication from prokaryotic DNA replication?
    (a) Bidirectional replication fork
    (b) No use of an RNA primer
    (c) Multiple origins of replication
    (d) Use of only one DNA polymerase
  2. Restriction-modification system of bacteria exists to
    (a) Promote conjugation
    (b) Encourage recombination of new genetic material
    (c) Promote complementation
    (d) Protect bacteria from invading foreign DNA
  3. With reference to the enzymes in mitochondria, match List-I (Location in Mitochondria) with List-II (Enzymes) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
    List-I List-II
    (Location) (Enzymes)
    A. Outer membrane 1. Adenylate cyclase
    B. Inner membrane 2. Fatty acid CoA ligase
    C. Inter-membranal space 3. Malate dehydrogenase
    D. Matrix 4. Succinic acid dehydrogenase
    Code:
    (a) A B C B
    2 1 4 3
    (b) A B C D
    2 4 1 3
    (c) A B C D
    3 1 4 2
    (d) A B C D
    3 4 1 2
  4. Consider the following enzymes 1. ATPase 2. Acid phosphatase 3. Glucose-6-phosphatase
    Which of the above enzymes is/are present in the Golgi complex of animal cells?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  5. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
    (a) In deoxyribose, the phosphate is attached to 3′ carbon and the hydroxyl group is attached to 5′ carbon
    (b) Any nucleic acid has a 3′ end and a 5′ end
    (c) A gene is always written from 5′ end.
    (d) The length of the promoter sequence varies from gene to gene
  6. A sequence of nucleotides on DNA ‘CATCATCATCAT’ is changed through mutation to ‘CAATCATCATCAT’. What is this type of mutation called?
    (a) Frame shift (b) Transition
    (c) Transversion (d) Nonsense
  7. Consider the following statements: 1. Histones are found in all organisms that have nuclei. 2. There are eleven types of histones 3. Histones are temporarily removed during transcription 4. Any change in the amino acid sequence of histone proteins is harmless for the organism.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
  8. As an antibiotic inhibiting protein synthesis, what is the specific action of Rifamycin?
    (a) Inhibition of elongation at transcription in eukaryotes
    (b) Denaturing RNA polymerase thereby blocking initiation at transcription in prokaryotes
    (c) Inhibition of recognition on mRNA in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
    (d) Blocking binding at A-site or causing misreading of codon in prokaryotes
  9. Which among the following are the precursor amino acids for purines?
    (a) Arginine and Tyrosine
    (b) Aspartate and Glycine
    (c) Histidine and Tyrosine
    (d) Methionine and Tryptophan
  10. Bacterial cells can be rendered more permeable to the uptake of plasinids by treatment with
    (a) Heat (b) Calcium phosphate
    (c) Alkali detergent (d) Ultrasound or magnetism
  11. Which one of the following human genes has the longest stretch of DNA (~24 Mb)?
    (a) Globin gene (b) Histone gene
    (c) Dystrophin gene (d) Insulin gene
  12. Consider the following statements : 1. Chloramphenicol does not affect mitochondrial protein synthesis. 2. Mitochondria employ f-methionine as the initiating amino acid.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  13. Which one of the following cells is diploid?
    (a) Primary polar body (b) Spermatid
    (c) Primary spermatocyte (d) Spermatozoon
  14. Consider the following statements: 1. A mammalian protein expressed in E. coli by
    means of recombinant DNA technology can lack 1. glycosylation 2. phosphorylation
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  15. Hormones are thought to regulate gene activity primarily ay the level of
    (a) Transport of RNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
    (b) Post-translation processing of protein
    (c) Transcription
    (d) Translation
  16. An antibiotic that resembles the 3′ end of a charged tRNA molecule and brings
    premature termination of protein synthesis is
    (a) Streptomycin (b) Chloramphenicol
    (c) Tetracycline (d) Puromycin
  17. Consider the following statements : 1. In a bacterial ribosome, the 30 S subunit contains one molecule of rRNA and the large subunit contains two molecules each of three types of rRNA. 2. All tRNAs have five loops caused by complementary base pairing and the anticodon
    is at the third loop from the 5′ end.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  18. In DNA, the deoxygenation is at
    (a) First carbon atom (b) Second carbon atom
    (c) Third carbon atom (d) Fourth carbon atom
  19. Consider the following statements regarding the structure of DNA : 1. There are three hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine whereas between cytosine and guanine the hydrogen bonds are two. 2. Irrespective of the source of DNA, the ratio of adenine to thymine and the ratio of cytosine to guanine is always one. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  20. Which one of the following is correct?
    (a) DNA fingerprinting and DNA footprinting are one and the same
    (b) DNA fingerprinting is used to identify DNA from living organisms whereas DNA
    footprinting is used to identify DNA from fossils
    (c) DNA fingerprinting and DNA footprinting both are used for individual identification
    (d) DNA fingerprinting is used for individual identification whereas DNA footprinting
    is used for protein binding regions in DNA
  21. Consider the following statements with reference to lactose (lac) operon in E. coli :1. Lac enzymes are encoded in a single polycistronic mRNA molecule (lac mRNA).2. Cyclic AMP induces the initiation of transcription of lac mRNA.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  22. Consider the following statements: 1. The eyeball of rabbit is moved in the orbit by four sets of muscles and the eyeball of frog is moved by three sets of muscles. 2. The pecten in the eye is more developed in diurnal birds than in nocturnal birds.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  23. Consider the following amino acids: 1. Arginine 2. Alanine 3. Histidine
    Which of the above amino acids are polar in nature?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  24. Consider the following statements :
    The most important role of folic acid in promoting growth is through 1. conversion of decarboxylated pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA 2. synthesis of purine and thymine synthesis 3. calcium deposition in bones
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
  25. Which one of the following sensations is not generated by impulses initiated in naked nerve endings?
    (a) Touch (b) Pain
    (c) Cold (d) Taste
  26. In glycolysis, which enzyme acts on 2-phosphoglycerate to form phosphoenol pyruvate?
    (a) Aldolase (b) Enolase
    (c) Phosphoglycerokinase (d) Phosphoglyceromutase
  27. In the vertebrates,. the hormones which control osmoregulation are
    (a) Vasopressin and thyrotropin
    (b) Aldosterone and corticotropin
    (c) Thyrotropin and corticotropin
    (d) Vasopressin and aldosterone
  28. Which one of the following vitamins is the precursor of coenzyme A?
    (a) Pantothenic acid (b) Pyridoxamine
    (c) Riboflavin (d) Thiamine
  29. Nicotinic acid can be synthesized biologically from
    (a) Gglutamic acid (b) Aspartic acid
    (c) Tyrosine (d) Tryptophan
    518 CSIR-NET Life Sciences
  30. With reference to mitochondrial ‘Electron Transport Chain’, which one of the following
    statements is correct?
    (a) Ubiquinone can carry two electrons and two protons simultaneously
    (b) The electrons that each molecule of NADH contributes to the mitochondrial
    electron transport chain provide enough power to create two ATPs
    (c) The contribution of FADH 2 provides enough power for the production of three
    ATPs
    (d) Cytochrome b and cytochrome c1
    are parts of an enzyme complex known as
    cytochrome oxidase
  31. Consider the following statements : 1. ATP cannot be stored in the cell. 2. ATP can be moved from one cell to another. 3. NAD+ picks up two electrons at once.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  32. Which one of the following hormones controls gluconeogenesis?
    (a) Thyroxine (b) Insulin
    (c) Cortisol (d) Glucagon
  33. Dietary carotenes and carotenoids are absorbed & transported in the plasma of higher
    mammals as
    (a) Albumins (b) Globulins
    (c) Lipoproteins (d) Glycoproteins
  34. Consider the following conditions 1. Enlarged thyroid 2. Protruding eyeballs 3. Decreased blood sugar
    Which of the above is / are the symptom(s) of Graves’ disease?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  35. Consider the following statements:
    In citric acid cycle 1. the generation of A TP is done at two steps 2. NAD+ is reduced to NADH at two steps 3. FAD is reduced to FADH2 at one step
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  36. Proteins also release the energy in our body but before that their deamination is
    carried out in
    (a) Spleen (b) Muscles
    (c) Lungs (d) Liver
  37. Consider the following processes: 1. Generation of cytotoxic T -cells 2. Stimulation of interferon release 3. Formation of bursin 4. Release of opsin
    Which of the above are the functions in mammalian tissues performed by interleukin
    (T-cell growth factor) which is secreted by certain activated T-Lymphocytes?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
  38. Which one of the following is a Tyrosine derivative?’
    (a) Insulin
    (b) Growth hormone
    (c) Oxytocin
    (d) Thyroxine
  39. With reference to sucrose, consider the following statements: 1. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. 2. The linkage in it is an a2-b1 glycosidic bond 3. It is a disaccharide having a-glucose and b-fructose.
    Which of the statements given above is(are) correct
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  40. The epididymis in viviparous mammals mainly helps in the
    (a) Transport of sperms only
    (b) Maturation of sperms only
    (c) Storage and transport of sperms
    (d) Maturation and storage of sperms
  41. In frog, eye lens develops from
    (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm
    (c) Endoderm (d) Mesenchyme
  42. Which one of the following is the characteristic of an adult ascidian?
    (a) Elongated tail
    (b) Large notochord
    (c) Enlarged pharynx
    (d) Well-developed statocyst
  43. With reference to the development of allantois in mammals, consider the following
    statements: 1. It is composed of endoderm and splanchnic mesoderm. 2. As it grows, mesodermal components of allantoic wall give rise to the blood vessel system of the allantois and fuse with mesoderm of chorion. 3.Allantois of mammals supplies / oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  44. Consider the following statements: 1. Haemophilia is determined by sex-linked recessive gene. 2. Haemophilia is known only in males; and females homozygous for this gene are unknown.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  45. Who of the following proposed the theory that all organs of an individual produce
    minute particles carrying information about the organs?
    (a) Wallace (b) Darwin
    (c) Lamarck (d) Huxley
  46. Neo-Lamarckism is getting a new life with the discovery of
    (a) RNA interference (b) Epistasis
    (c) Genetic imprinting (d) Paedomorphosis
  47. consider the following : 1. Alanine 2. Glycine 3. Aspartic acid
    Which of the above amino acids were produced in Miller’s experiment to produce organic molecules from the gaseous composition of early/primitive atmosphere of earth?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
  48. Golden langur (Presbytis geel) is naturally found in which one of the Wildlife Sanctuaries/National Parks?
    (a) Periyar (b) Sariska
    (c) Manas (d) Sasan Gir
  49. Which one among the following is a mammal with least number of diploid set of
    chromosomes?
    (a) Dog (b) Rhinoceros
    (c) Barking deer (d) Red deer
  50. Who of the following has given the Y -shaped two-channel energy flow model consisting
    of grazing and detritus food chains?
    (a) Clements (b) Hardin
    (c) Odum (d) Tansley
  51. Similar environment in different continents produce similar type of ecosystems.
    Species occupying similar ecological niche in such disjunct ecosystems are known as
    (a) Ecological guilds
    (b) Ecological equivalents
    (c) Ecotypes
    (d) Ecological indicators
  52. The grazing pathway of energy flow is relatively more important than the detritus
    pathway
    (a) In grassland ecosystem
    (b) Tropical forest ecosystem
    (c) Pond ecosystem
    (d) Marine ecosystem
  53. A taxon facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate
    future is regarded as
    (a) Critically endangered (b) Endangered
    (c) Vulnerable (d) Near threatened
  54. Consider the following characteristics 1. Loss of hair on the skin 2. Loss of sweat -glands 3. Presence of thick blubber 4. Presence of swim bladder
    In Cetacea, due to aquatic mode of life, which of the above are the adaptations that
    have taken place?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
  55. The area over which an individual animal roams during the course of its usual daily wandering and in which it spends most of its time is called
    (a) Nesting territory (b) Home range
    (c) Mating territory (d) Feeding range
  56. The interspecific interaction between the termites and the protozoans (Trichonympha sp.), present in the guts of termites is called
    (a) Amensalism (b) Commensalism
    (c) Parasitism (d) Mutalism
  57. Consider the following : 1. Bandipur Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary and 3. Simlipal Wildlife Sanctuary
    Which of the above are tiger reserves under the Project Tiger?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  58. Thamin deer (Cervus eldi) is an inhabitant of
    (a) Kanha National Park
    (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
    (c) Bandipur Wildlife Sanctuary
    (d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
  59. Similarity in the appearance of two or more unpalatable species resulting over
    evolutionary time is called
    (a) Mutual adaptation (b) Batesian mimicry
    (c) Mullerian mimicry (d) Convergent mimicry
  60. The pyramids of biomass are always inverted in
    (a) Forest ecosystem
    (b) Grassland ecosystem
    (c) Pond ecosystem
    (d) Desert ecosystem
  61. Consider the following statements: 1. The king cobra is ophiophagus. and 2. The king cobra is the only snake in the world which builds a nest.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  62. Which one of the following refers to the largest tiger reserve?
    (a) Corbett (b) Sariska
    (c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam (d) Kanha
  63. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Sangai is confined to Nagaland only. and 2. Four-horned antelope (Tetraeerus quadrieomis) exclusively lives in Indian subcontinent.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  64. Who discovered Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) ?
    (a) James Watson (b) David Baltimore
    (c) Kary Mullis (d) F. Crick
  65. Consider the following statements: 1. Marfan syndrome is a sex linked disorder. and 2. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal disorder.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  66. The pollen basket in honeybee is located at the
    (a) Lower side of the abdomen
    (b) Tip of antenna
    (c) Tarsus of first leg
    (d) Tibia of third leg
  67. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a/an
    (a) Sex-linked disorder
    (b) Autosomal disorder
    (c) Pre-disposition to multiple cancer
    (d) Trinucleotide repeat expansion
  68. Consider the following statements : 1. The females, but not males, of all wasps have sting. and 2.The adult wasps have shorter tongue than bees, and so can suck the nectar only from shallow flowers.
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  69. The synthesis of plasma albumin is done by
    (a) Liver (b) Muscle cells
    (c) Pancreas (d) Spleen
  70. What is the role of secretin from the following?
    (a) It stimulates the testis to secrete testosterone
    (b) Stimulates stomach to release HCI
    (c) It stimulates pancreas to secrete the digestive enzymes
    (d) It stimulates spleen to release the stored RBC

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 09 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

PART – A

  1. An eye defect which usually results from an unequal curvature of the cornea is
    (a) Nearsightedness (b) Astigmatism
    (c) Colour blindness (d) Night blindness
  2. The velocity of sound in air under normal conditions is
    (a) 30 m/sec
    (b) 320 m/sec
    (c) 332 m/sec
    (d) 3,320 m/sec
  3. A photo-electric cell converts
    (a) Sound energy into electrical energy
    (b) Light energy into electrical energy
    (c) An electrical signal into sound waves
    (d) Electrical energy into light energy
  4. Which of the following sounds cannot be heard by human ear?
    (a) 300 vibrations/sec
    (b) 1,000 vibrations/see
    (c) 10,000 vibrations/sec
    (d) 30,000 vibrations/sec
  5. If force is expressed in newton and the distance in metre, then the work done is expressed in
    (a) Joule (b) Kg wt
    (c) Kg wt m (d) Watt
  6. The Law of Natural Selection is associated with
    (a) Dalton (b) Darwin
    (c) Kepler (d) Mendel
    Model Test Paper – 9 525
  7. When cream is separated from milk
    (a) The density of milk increases
    (b) The density of milk decreases
    (c) The density of milk remains unchanged
    (d) It becomes more viscous
  8. The element of an electric stove is made of
    (a) Copper (b) Invar
    (c) Magnalium (d) Nicrome
  9. Which of the following is based on the procesS’of fusion?
    (a) Atom bomb (b) Hydrogen bomb
    (c) Ordinary bomb (d) Napalm bomb
  10. Hybridisation is
    (a) Downward movement of water through soil
    (b) A process of tilling the land
    (c) Decayed vegetable matter
    (d) Cross-fertilisation between two varieties
  11. Of the following foods, which one is the best source of protein ?
    (a) Butter (b) Fish
    (c) Lettuce (d) Milk
  12. The red blood cells are formed in the
    (a) Heart (b) Liver
    (c) Lymph nodes (d) Marrow of bones
  13. A wet-bulb and a dry-bulb thermometer are used to determine
    (a) The minimum temperature at a place in any 24-hour period
    (b) Relative humidity
    (c) Air pressure
    (d) The maximum temperature at a place in any 24-hour period
  14. One of the isotopes of iodine has a “half life” of 25 minutes. This information tells us that if we start with a given quantity of the isotopes, 50 minutes later there will remain
    (a) One-fourth of the original amount
    (b) None
    (c) One-half of the original amount
    (d) Approximately the same amount
  15. Small amount of iodine are necessary in our diet to
    (a) Prevent pellagra
    (b) Compensate for underactivity of the thyroid gland
    (c) Stimulate clotting of blood
    (d) Stimulate pituitary gland
  16. On sudden cardiac arrest, which of the following is advised as a first step to revive the functioning of human heart ?
    (a) Mouth to mouth resuscitation (b) Giving external cardiac massage
    (c) Sprinkling water on the face (d) Giving cool water to drink
  17. A triode differs from a diode in the way that
    (a) It can amplify a signal
    (b) It has vacuum inside
    (c) It has a heated cathode
    (d) Its current is caused by the photo electric effect
  18. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5: 4 :3, how many degrees are there in the
    largest angle
    (a) 750 (b) 900
    (c) 400 (d) 450
  19. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 4, and there difference is 10. What is the larger
    number?
    (a) 30 (b) 40
    (c) 50 (d) 60
  20. The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last year. This year, the price of A is increased by 25% and that of B by Rs. 50,000. If their prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10, the price of A last year was
    (a) Rs. 3,60,000 (b) Rs. 4,50,000
    (c) Rs. 4,80,000 (d) Rs. 5,00,000
  21. Three-fourths of 68 is less than two thirds of 114 by
    (a) 12 (b) 25
    (c) 35 (d) 48
  22. Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards (a set of traditional playing
    cards), at random. The probability that one is a spade and other is a heart is
    (a) 13/102 (b) 3/20
    (c) 47/100 (d) 29/34
  23. A bag has 4 red and 5 black balls. A second bag has 3 red and 7 black balls. One ball is drawn from the first bag and two from the second. The probability, that there are two blacks balls and a red ball, is
    (a) 14/45 (b) 11/45
    (c) 7/15 (d) 9/54
  24. The transverse, longitudinal and surface waves in an earthquake originate from
    (a) The epicentre within the body of the earth
    (b) The focus on the surface of the earth
    (c) The focus within the body of the earth
    (d) The epicentre on the surface of the earth
  25. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in
    (a) Mid latitudes (b) Low latitudes
    (c) High latitudes (d) Subtropics
  26. Although only the southern part of India lies in the tropical region, but the whole of
    India has tropical climate. This is because.
    (a) India comes under the influence of monsoons.
    (b) Northern part of India has large tracts of plain region
    (c) Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country
    (d) High Himalayan mountain ranges separate it from the rest of Asia
  27. What is the main cause of movement in the earth’s atmosphere?
    (a) Difference in air pressure (b) Solar energy
    (c) Difference in temperature (d) Wind
  28. Among the following which is a general purpose programming language-
    (a) C (b) COBOL
    (c) PASCAL (d) FORTRAN
  29. Consider the following program:
    A=0
    B=0
    I=0
    Do While I =/=0
    A=A2+1
    B=B2–3
    Else
    PRINT A
    The output of the programme will be
    (a) 0 (b) 16
    (c) 9 (d) 15
  30. Among the following which is not an input device:
    (a) Mouse (b) Scanner
    (c) OMR (d) Plotter

PART – B >>

  1. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, that
    parent is taken as a male. During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in
    (a) One-third of the progenies
    (b) None of the progenies
    (c) All the progenies
    (d) Fifty percent of the progenies
  2. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the vacuole will
    (a) Increase in number (b) Disappear
    (c) Increase in size (d) Decrease in size
  3. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body:
    (a) Homeothermy (b) Presence of Diaphragm
    (c) Four chambered heart (d) Rib cage
  4. Chemically hormones are
    (a) Biogenic amines only
    (b) Proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
    (c) Proteins only
    (d) Steroids only
  5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    (a) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
    (b) Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite
    (c) Vitamin B1 – Beri-beri
    (d) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
  6. Uricotelism is found in
    (a) Mammals and birds
    (b) Fishes and fresh-water protozoans
    (c) Birds, reptiles and insects
    (d) Frogs and toads
  7. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s glands which secrete two hormones called
    (a) Kinase, estrogen
    (b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
    (c) Prolactin, parathormone
    (d) Estradiol, progesterone
  8. Mast cells of connective tissue contain
    (a) Vasopressin and relaxin
    (b) Heparin and histamine
    (c) Heparin and calcitonin
    (d) Serotonin and melanin
  9. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they
    are
    (a) Lack of mutation
    (b) Undergoing rapid division
    (c) Different in structure
    (d) Non-dividing
  10. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are
    (a) High fertility, rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth & young age distribution
    (b) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age distribution
    (c) High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth and a very young age distribution
    (d) High mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age distribution
  11. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in
    (a) Actinin (b) Troponin
    (c) Myosin (d) Actin
  12. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
    (a) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
    (b) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
    (c) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
    (d) Anopheles culifacies – Leishmaniasis
  13. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    (a) Streptomyces – Antibiotic
    (b) Serratia – Drug addiction
    (c) Spirulina – Single cell protein
    (d) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
  14. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association
    with the water fern Azolla is
    (a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
    (c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
  15. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the
    blood group of the individual would be
    (a) B (b) O
    (c) AB (d) A
  16. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting
    from its deficiency?
    (a) Luteinizing hormone – Failure of ovulation
    (b) Insulin– Diabetes insipidus
    (c) Thyroxine – Tetany
    (d) Parathyroid hormone – Diabetes mellitus
  17. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their
    (a) Power of adaptability in diverse habitat
    (b) Property of producing large number of seeds
    (c) Nature of self pollination
    (d) Domestication by man
  18. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?
    (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
    (b) Prolactin
    (c) Estrogen
    (d) Progesterone
  19. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis
    of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of
    test tubes. Which of them will you not use for the purpose?
    (a) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
    (b) Chilled test tube
    (c) Test tube containing heparin
    (d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
  20. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?
    (a) By tissue culture method
    (b) By creating biosphere reserve
    (c) By creating botanical garden
    (d) By developing seed bank
  21. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem?
    (a) Secondary Production
    (b) Tertiary Production
    (c) Gross Production (GP)
    (d) Net Production (NP)
  22. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no
    (a) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes
    (b) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
    (c) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
    (d) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
  23. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes?
    (a) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
    (b) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only
    (c) Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
    (d) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria
  24. A gene which suppresses the action of another gene not situated on the same locus
    on the same chromosome is termed
    (a) Jumping gene (b) Epistatic gene
    (c) Supplementary gene (d) Hypostatic gene
  25. Gene therapy is
    (a) Same as recombinant DNA technology
    (b) Aimed at growing plants in vitro
    (c) Aimed at growing animals in vitro
    (d) Employed to replace defective genes of animals or plants by correct genes
  26. According to operon concept, an operator gene combines with
    (a) Inducer gene to ‘switch on’ transcription
    (b) Regulator gene to ‘switch off, transcription
    (c) Regulator protein to ‘switch off, transcription
    (d) Regulator protein to ‘switch on’ transcription
  27. Which among the following is not an endocrine gland?
    (a) Pineal (b) Pituitary
    (c) Adrenals (d) Gonads
  28. The excreta of lizards is rich in
    (a) Urea (b) Uric acid
    (c) Guanidine (d) Alantoin
  29. Which among the following is not a stem modification?
    (a) Rhizome of ginger
    (b) Sweet potato tuber
    (c) Corn of Colocasia
    (d) Potato tuber
  30. Down’s syndrome is due to
    (a) Trisomy of chromosome 21
    (b) Trisomy of Y chromosome
    (c) Trisomy of X chromosome
    (d) Deletion of X chromosome
  31. To get a constant specific growth rate in a fed batch reactor the feeding pattern should be
    (a) Constant rate
    (b) Linearly increasing rate
    (c) Pulse feeding
    (d) Exponential feeding
  32. A plasmid was treated with topoisomerase followed by an intercalator which is known to unwind DNA by 18 degrees. Subsequently the ligand-DNA mixture was extracted with phenol chloroform and run on an agarose gel where it was found to have 2 positive supercoils. The number of ligand molecules bound to one plasmid is
    (a) Zero (b) 20
    (c) 40 (d) 80
  33. When a protein is denatured by heating, the absorbance as measured in a UV spectrometer will
    (a) Always increase
    (b) Always decrease
    (c) Increase or decrease depending on wavelength
    (d) Remain unaffected
  34. Chymotrypsinogen in the native state and reduced unfolded states is loaded in well A
    and B respectively. They are electrophoreses and stain, one of the following results
    is likely to be observed.
    (a) Protein in well A would have moved longer distance than that in well B
    (b) Protein in well A would have moved shorter distance than that in well B
    (c) Protein in well A and B would have moved the same distance
    (d) Protein in well A and B would not move at all
  35. Urea is known to denature proteins at high concentration due to
    (a) Its ability to disrupt water structure
    (b) Its ability to hydrogen bond with the peptide group in proteins
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Its ability to disrupt electrostatic interactions
  36. Super antigens activate
    (a) T cells only in an antigen non-specific manner by cross linking T cell receptors
    with the MHC-II molecules
    (b) B cells only in an antigen non-specific manner by Cross linking a large number of surface immunoglobulin molecules
    (c) Both T and B cells without interacting through TCR or BCR
    (d) T cells only through an unknown mechanism
  37. Macrophages. which are also called monocytes, have the ability to
    (a) Process and present antigens to T cells
    (b) Produce antibodies
    (c) Express IgM molecules on their surface
    (d) Differentiate into dendritic cells when necessary
  38. Indicate which statement is not correct. T helper cells
    (a) Stimulate migration of macrophages
    (b) Help B cells to produce antibodies
    (c) Are cytotoxic to virus infected cells
    (d) Help in generation of cytotoxic T Cells
  39. Which of the following substances will not produce antibodies when injected into an animal?
    (a) Bacterial polysaccharides (b) DNA
    (c) Dinitrophenol (d) Actin
  40. Monoclonal antibodies are secreted by Hybridomas which are generated by
    (a) Fusion of immune spleen cells with any type of cells capable of growing in tissue culture
    (b) Fusion of immune spleen cells with plasmacytoma cells
    (c) Growing immune spleen cells in the presence of HAT
    (d) Growing immune spleen cells in the presence of B cell growth factors
  41. The dendritic cells can only present antigen to naive T cells-
    (a) Because they constitutively express MHC-II and costimulatory molecules on their surface
    (b) Because they can phagocytose antigens very rapidly and process them
    (c) Because they are the only antigen presenting cells present at the site of antigen entry
    (d) Because they are the only type of cells which have receptors for naive T cells
  42. In a mouse during the embryonic stage of development of the immune system (gestation period)
    (a) Both gd and ab thymocytes are generated in equal numbers
    (b) The gd thymocytes predominate over the ab thymocytes till about 17 days of gestation
    (c) The ab thymocytes predominate over the ab thymocytes till about 17 days of gestation
    (d) There are no gd or ab thymocytes produced during the gestation period
  43. Which class of proteins is not generally specified by an oncogene?
    (a) Ion channels
    (b) Growth factors
    (c) Transcription factors
    (d) Signal transduction protein
  44. A characteristic of homologous chromosomes is that
    (a) They carry alleles for the same genes in the same relative positions
    (b) They regularly exchange parts by crossing over at meiosis
    (c) They physically pair at meiosis
    (d) All of the above
  45. Which one of the following characteristics best applies to an allosteric effector?
    (a) Competes with substrate for the catalytic site
    (b) Binds to a site on the enzyme molecule distinct from the catalytic site
    (c) Changes the nature of the product formed
    (d) Changes the substrate specificity of the enzyme
  46. Which one of the following toxins inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis through the
    depurination of a single adenine residue in 28S ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?
    (a) Diptheria toxin (b) Ricin
    (c) a-Sarcin (d) Colicin E-3
  47. Which one of the following enzyme-catalyzed reactions generates a high-energy
    phosphate bond?
    (a) The phosphorylation of glucose
    (b) 2_phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
    (c) 3_phosphoglycerate to 2_phosphoglycerate
    (d) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
  48. Which one of the following enzymes is tightly associated with the inner mitochondrial
    membrane?
    (a) Citrate synthase
    (b) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
    (c) Succinate dehydrogenase
    (d) Fumarase
  49. Which one of the following supports glycogen synthesis?
    (a) High cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels
    (b) Inactive adenyl cyclase
    (c) Active phosphorylase-a
    (d) Epinephrine
  50. A patient is suffering from a deficiency in the activity of acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) carboxylase. Which one of the following metabolites is most likely to accumulate in the patient’s serum?
    (a) Short-chain fatty acids
    (b) Long-chain.fatty acids
    (c) Ketone bodies
    (d) Malonyl CoA
  51. Which one of the following statements describes the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of proteins in the cytosol?
    (a) One molecule of ubiquitin binds. to the protein to be degraded
    (b) The process is catalyzed by a single enzyme
    (c) The process depends on adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
    (d) The N-terminal residue of ubiquitin becomes covalently attached to the protein to be degraded
  52. A patient is suffering from untreated insulin-dependent diabetes. Which one of the following metabolic actions is occurring in this patient?
    (a) Glucose is used by skeletal muscle for fuel
    (b) Ketone bodies are released by the liver into the blood
    (c) Glucose is used by the liver for fuel
    (d) Fatty acids are transported from the liver to the adipose tissue
  53. The initiator codon in eukaryote is-
    (a) AUG (b) GUG
    (c) CUG (d) UUU
  54. If the same aminoacid is coded by 2 or more codons, it is called-
    (a) Universal (b) Overlapping type
    (c) Degenerate (d) Non-sense
  55. Uncoiled DNA in differentiating cells is generally busy in synthesis of-
    (a) DNA (b) mRNA
    (c) Proteins (d) Glucose
  56. What do mutation and recombination have in common-
    (a) They increase variation (b) They cause genetic drift
    (c) They cause natural selection (d) All of the above
  57. Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of
    (a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis
    (c) Protein synthesis (d) Transcription
  58. The B-form of the DNA molecule takes a complete turn after
    (a) Every base pair (b) Every five base pairs
    (c) Every ten base pairs (d) Every two base pairs
  59. Stem cells are
    (a) Callus cells from plant stems
    (b) Embryonic cells of higher animals in culture
    (c) Tumor cells from kidneys
    (d) Tumor cells from bone marrow
  60. All of the following are sources of energy for active transport except
    (a) ATP (b) Proton gradients
    (c) Light (d) All of the above
  61. While studying a cell with the electron microscope, a scientist notes the following numerous ribosomes, a well-developed endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplasts, and a cell wall. Which of the following could be the source of this cell?
    (a) A fungus (b) An animal
    (c) A bacterium (d) A plant
  62. Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and the Calvin (light-independent) cycle?
    (a) They both result in a net production of ATP and NADH
    (b) They both result in a release of oxygen
    (c) They both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix
    (d) They both take place within the cytoplasmic matrix
  63. Which therapeutic antibiotic blocks the peptidyl transferase reaction of protein
    synthesis?
    (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Erythromycin
    (c) Tetracycline (d) Puromycin
  64. The mitochondrial electron transport chain carriers are located
    (a) In the inner mitochondrial membrane
    (b) In the mitochondrial matrix
    (c) in the inter-membrane space
    (d) On the inner surface of the outer mitochondrial membrane
  65. The release of arachidonate from membrane glycerophospholipids is inhibited by
    which one of the following compounds?
    (a) Aspirin
    (b) Linoleic acid
    (c) A specific protein induced by glucocorticoids
    (d) 2-Acyl lysophosphatidylcholine
  66. Cell lysis can be brought about by
    (a) Ligase
    (b) Gyrase
    (c) Lysozyme
    (d) Cellulase
  67. The two principals and products of photosynthesis are
    (a) Starch and sucrose
    (b) Glycerol and glycogen
    (c) Cellulose and glycogen
    (d) Glycerol and cellulose
  68. Find out which is not the correct statement
    The collagen triple helix domain
    (a) Is rich in glycine
    (b) is rich in proline
    (c) Is rich in alanine
    (d) Is rich in hydroxyproline
  69. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in
    (a) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
    (b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
    (c) Ribosomes and chloroplast
    (d) Lysosomes and ribosomes
  70. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having
    (a) Low stability and high resilience
    (b) High stability and low resilience
    (c) Low stability and low resilience
    (d) High stability and high resilience

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.


CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 10 Free 2022 [Practice Now]


PART – A >>

  1. Effect of ozone layer on life on earth is:
    (a) Harmful because it cuts cosmic rays
    (b) Beneficial because it cuts down UV radiation
    (c) Prevention of mutation
    (d) Negligible
  2. Age of the oldest rock on the earth is about
    (a) 4 billion years
    (b) 3 billion years
    (c) 2 billion years
    (d) 1 billion years
  3. The land-sea breezes arise because
    (a) Land has a higher heat capacity than land
    (b) Ocean has higher heat capacity than land
    (c) Of a periodic variation in trade winds
    (d) Of rotation of the earth
  4. According to current understanding, the Himalayas have resulted from:
    (a) Cometary impact on earth
    (b) Asymmetrical pull of the moon on earth
    (c) Uneven cooling of solidified magma
    (d) Collision of continents due to continental drift
  5. An ideal material for making cooking vessels must have
    (a) Small conductivity and large heat capacity
    (b) Large heat capacity and large conductivity
    (c) Small heat capacity and large conductivity
    (d) Small heat capacity and small conductivity
  6. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations. They can therefore be deflected by
    (a) Electric and magnetic fields together
    (b) Electric fields only
    (c) Magnetic fields only
    (d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields
  7. Which one of these is caused by extrinsic factors
    (a) Malfunctioning of organs
    (b) Genetic disorders
    (c) Normal disturbance
    (d) Deficiency diseases
  8. For a rection to be exothermic, the value of DG and DS should be
    (a) +, – (b) –, +
    (c) +, + (d) –, –
  9. Predict which relation cannot occur?
    (a) Cu + 2HCl –> CuCl2 + H2
    (b) H2 + CuO –> H2O + Cu
    (c) Mg + 2HCl –> MgCl2 + H2
    (d) Zn + 2HCl –> ZnCl2 + H2
  10. pH of 10–8 M HCl is
    (a) 8 (b) 4
    (c) 7 (d) 6.8
  11. Which of the following is not correct?
    (a) Sucrose is a carbohydrate
    (b) Ribonuclease is an enzyme
    (c) C12H25 – C15H31 fraction of petroleum is kerosene oil
    (d) Cellulose is a lipid
  12. A flight started from Adelade on 5.00 A.M. Monday to california. It crosses International date line at 10.00 AM, the time and day after crossing it would be
    (a) 10.00 A.M. Sunday
    (b) 5.00 A.M. Tuesday
    (c) 10.00 A.M. Tuesday
    (d) 5.00 A.M. Sunday
  13. During the earthquake most damage is seen on earth crust because earth crust is
    (a) rigid (b) brittle
    (c) inelastic (d) molten
  14. Both mother and father are of AB blood type. The possible blood types of their children will be
    (a) AB only (b) AA only
    (c) AA and BB only (d) AA, BB and AB
  15. Which among the following animals has the tongue fixed in front and free at the back?
    (a) Monkey (b) Rabbit
    (c) Cat (d) Frog
  16. Rauwolfia serpentine is a
    (a) Helminth parasite
    (b) Causative organism of AIDS
    (c) Medicinal plant
    (d) Poisonous snake
  17. Which of the following sets of substances are parts of the essential requirements for the growth of green plants?
    (a) Carbon dioxide, oxygen, sulfate
    (b) Nitrate, carbon dioxide, phosphate
    (c) Nitrate, vitamin B1, sulfate
    (d) ADP, carbon dioxide, nitrate
  18. The roots of the equation x2 + 7x + 12 = 0 are a and b. The real value of a2 + b2 is
    (a) 5 (b) 2
    (c) 0 (d) 3
  19. The number of real solutions of cos2x – 1/4 = 0
    (a) 1/2 (b) 1
    (c) 2 (d) infinity
  20. The integration value of (1-x2)-2 from -π/2 to π/2 is
    (a) 2 (b) 0
    (c) π (d) π/2
  21. The average age of 40 students of a class is 15 years. When 10 new students are
    admitted, the average is increased by 0.2 years. The average age of new students is
    (a) 16 years (b) 15.2 years
    (c) 16.2 years (d) 16.4 years
  22. Which one of the following is not an electronic computer?
    (a) IBM-PC (b) ENIAC
    (c) PC-DOS (d) IBM-1620
  23. A statement of the type
    10 LET AS = ‘STRING’ is allowed in
    (a) FORTRAN (b) COBOL
    (c) C language (d) BASIC language
  24. Integrated Circuits were first used in
    (a) First generation system
    (b) Second generation system
    (c) Third generation system
    (d) Fourth generation system
  25. Microcomputer application software is usually written in
    (a) Multiprogramming environment
    (b) Timesharing environment
    (c) User friendly environment
    (d) Network Environment
  26. The UNIX operating system has been written in
    (a) Machine language (b) C language
    (c) Assembly language (d) PASCAL language
  27. Indicate which one of the software requires a COMPILER for execution
    (a) SPSS (b) LOTUS
    (c) COBOL (d) ORACLE
  28. An Hexadigit can be represented by
    (a) Three binary consecutive bits
    (b) Four binary consecutive bits
    (c) Eight binary consecutive bits
    (d) Sixteen binary consecutive bits
  29. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?
    (a) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night blindness
    (b) Vitamin K – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
    (c) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
    (d) Vitamin K – Water -soluble – Pellagra
  30. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to
    (a) Repulsion (b) Recombination
    (c) Linkage (d) Crossing over

PART – B >>

  1. Which of the following amino acid is entirely incorporated in the nucleotide bases
    (a) Glutomic acid
    (b) Alanine
    (c) Glycine
    (d) Serine
  2. 9 + 2 fibrillar arrangement is present in
    (a) Bacterial flagella (b) Bacterial Fimbriae
    (c) Eukaryotic flagella (d) T4 bacteriaophage
  3. Coated vesicles in the cell gives rise to
    (a) Endosome (b) Microsome
    (c) Ribosome (d) Episome
  4. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are suggested to have evolved from symbiotic
    prokaryotes present in primitive eukaryotic cells. One evidence for this is that
    (a) These organelles contain cristae or thylakoids
    (b) These organelles contain electron transport chain
    (c) The ribosome in these organelles share properties with those of prokaryotes
    (d) The genetic code in these organelles is same as in all organisms
  5. A genetic region found in all humans whose products are primarily responsible for
    the rejection of grafts between individuals, is called
    (a) Junctional
    (b) Diversity
    (c) Major histocompatibility complex
    (d) Fc
  6. Chiasmata are formed during meiosis
    (a) Before metaphase I (b) After metaphase
    (c) During prophase II (d) During metaphase II
  7. In animals differentiation of cells is mostly due to
    (a) Cell type specific mutations
    (b) Deletion of specific DNA sequence in specific cell types
    (c) Specific gene repression and expression
    (d) Regulated expression of mitochondria DNA
  8. Button like points of intercellular contact that serve as anchoring sites of intermediate
    filaments and help to hold adjacent cells together are called
    (a) Gap junctions (b) Connexons
    (c) Cadherins (d) Desmosomes
  9. DNA duplication occurs in
    (a) Mitosis only (b) Meiosis only
    (c) meiosis-I and mitosis (d) meiosis II and mitosis
  10. The (OH) concentration of a 0.01 N HCl solution is
    (a) 1 × 10–8 g mol per litre
    (b) 1 × 10–10 g mol per litre
    (c) 1 × 10–12 g mol per litre
    (d) 1 × 10–14 g mol per litre
  11. Activity of which of the followig enzymes is not increased by insuline
    (a) acetyl CoA carboxylase (b) pyruvate carboxylase
    (c) glycogen synthase (d) glucokinase
  12. Infant suffering from galactosemia are unable to utilize normal milk because they
    (a) Lack the enzyme glucokinase in the liver
    (b) Are unable to hydrolyse lactose
    (c) Lack the enzyme glactose-1-phosphate uridylyl transferase
    (d) Accumulate the sugar alcohol
  13. The number of high energy phosphate bonds in ATP is
    (a) 1 (b) 2
    (c) 3 (d) 0
  14. Which bond has the minimum length?
    (a) C = C (b) C = C
    (c) C – C (d) C = O
  15. The Tm of DNA can be calculated using the formula: Tm = 69.1 + 0.41 (GC), where
    GC is the per cent of guanine + cytosine. A double stranded DNA has 27% adenine. Its
    Tm is
    (a) 79° C (b) 80.37° C
    (c) 95.40° C (d) 88° C
  16. Intron is a region of the chromosomal DNA
    (a) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed but is removed during maturation of
    the transcript
    (b) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed and persists in the mature mRNA
    (c) That is located between two adjacent genes
    (d) That is located at the centromere
  17. The characteristics of a weak acid is
    (a) High Ka (b) Low pKa
    (c) High pKa (d) None of these
  18. Colchicine treated cells are arrested in
    (a) S phase (b) Prophase
    (c) G1 phase (d) Metaphase
  19. One of the following enzymes is involved in translation step in protein biosynthesis
    (a) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
    (b) RNA polymerase
    (c) Ribozyme
    (d) Reverse transcriptase
  20. The sites of O2
    evolution and photophosphorylation in chloroplast are
    (a) Grana stacks (b) Matrix
    (c) Inner wall of chloroplast (d) Surface of chloroplast
  21. Photophosphorylation in chloroplasts requires movement of
    (a) Electrons across the membrane
    (b) Ions across the membrane
    (c) Protons across the membrane
    (d) Electrons and protons across the membrane
  22. Bacterial sporulation is induced in response to
    (a) Starvation of nutrients (b) Change in temperature
    (c) Change in pH (d) Change in light intensity
  23. Fixation of one molecules of 14CO2
    by photosynthesis will yield
    (a) One molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid
    (b) Two molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid
    (c) Three molecule of 14C-acetate
    (d) One molecule of 14C-glucose
  24. Pick out from the following the mammalian stress hormone
    (a) Glucocorticosteriods (b) Estrogen
    (c) Growth hormone (d) Relaxin
  25. Solar tracking is exhibited by
    (a) Helianthus annuus (b) Arabidopsis thaliana
    (c) Mimosa pudica (d) Xanthium strumarium
  26. Which of the following compounds have been reported to accumulate in a plant in
    large amounts as a result of water stress?
    (a) Aspartic acid (b) Proline
    (c) Citric acid (d) Indoleacetic acid
  27. Inhibition of photosynthesis by oxygen is called as
    (a) Emerson effect (b) Warburg effect
    (c) Pasteur effect (d) Red drop phenomenon
  28. Tetrodoxin is used as a
    (a) K channel blocker (b) Na channel broker
    (c) Ca channel broker
  29. Erythrocytes resist shearing forces while travelling through narrow blood vessels
    because they contain mesh work of
    (a) Glycophoria A (b) Spectrin
    (c) Hemoglobin (d) Ankyrin
  30. Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is due to
    (a) Absence of mitochondrial genome
    (b) Absence of plastid genome
    (c) Deletions in plastid genome
    (d) Alteration(s) in the mitochondrial genome
  31. In a typical Mendelian population, individuals carrying gene ‘a’ in homozygous
    condition suffer from phenylketonurea. Those with A in homozygous condition are
    normal. Others, who are heterozygotic with Aa, are carriers. If the frequency of ‘a’ in
    a population is 0.005 what is the percentage of carriers in the population?
    (a) 10.0 (b) 1.0
    (c) 0.1 (d) 90.0
  32. The rate of occurrence, per generation, of spontaneous mutations in all living
    organisms is
    (a) 10–2 to 10–4 (b) 10–5 to 10–7
    (c) 10–10 to 10–15 (d) 10–20 to 10–30
  33. Chromatid-type breaks occur during the cell cycle in the
    (a) S-phase (b) G1-phase
    (c) G2-phase (d) Mitosis
  34. After digestion of chromatin for a short time with micrococcal nuclease, DNA fragments of this size are obtained
    (a) 100 base pairs (b) Variable length
    (c) 200 base pairs (d) 146 base pairs
  35. Which one of the following is not true for a disease inherited as a sex-linked dominant in humans?
    (a) All daughters of an affected male will inherit the disease
    (b) Sons will inherit the disease, only if their mother has the diseases
    (c) Daughters will inherit the disease, only if their father has the diseases
    (d) Both affected males and affected heterozygous females will pass the trait to half their children
  36. Frame shift mutations occur following
    (a) Tautomeric shifts
    (b) base substitutions
    (c) Dimer formation
    (d) Insertion/deletion of single base
  37. Genetic element in bacteria that can replicate in the cytoplasm or can integrate into the bacterial chromosome and replicate with the host chromosome
    (a) Retrovirus (b) Plasmid
    (c) Episome (d) Plastome
  38. Hypophosphatemia is caused by an X-linked dominant gene in humans, if a hypophosphatemic man marries a normal woman, which of their children will have Hypophosphatemia?
    (a) All daughters
    (b) half of their daughters
    (c) All of the sons
    (d) half of their sons
  39. The most common cause of the pleiotropic effect of gene is due to
    (a) The same product of the given gene being involved in different metabolic pathways
    (b) The gene making very different products in different cell types
    (c) The DNA sequence of the gene getting changed in cell specific manner
    (d) The gene not functioning in some cells
  40. Life is believed to have originated on earth
    (a) 3.6 billion years ago
    (b) 3.6 million years ago
    (c) 4.5 billion years ago
    (d) 4.5 million years ago
  41. The evolutionary divergence of higher taxonomic groups is due to
    (a) Adaptive radiations (b) Anagenesis
    (c) Cladogenesis (d) Stasigenesis
  42. Molecular drive, which is associated with the origin of biological discontinuities, is the consequence of
    (a) Unequal crossing over, gene conversion and DNA transposition
    (b) Environmental control of gene expression
    (c) Selection
    (d) DNA methylation
  43. The process that led to the evolution of the common bread wheat from its progenitors is
    (a) Triploidy
    (b) Aneuploidy
    (c) Introgression
    (d) Hybridization followed by doubling of the chromosomes
  44. The hypothesis of Oparin and Haldane regarding origin of life is called as
    (a) Autotroph hypothesis (b) Heterotroph hypothesis
    (c) Chemotroph hypothesis (d) biogenesis hypothesis
  45. Ribosomal RNAs are better molecules for phylogenetic studies because
    (a) Antiquity of protein synthesizing process, and moderately well conserved
    (b) They can be easily sequenced
    (c) They are present in 70 S and 80 S ribosomes
    (d) None of the above
  46. The chemical evolution preceding biological evolution during origin of life was initiated
    through formation of
    (a) Condensing agents, e.g. cyanogens
    (b) ATP and other triphosphates
    (c) Both A and B
    (d) Pre-biotic catalyst-like compounds
  47. The evolutionary process involving long periods of stasis interrupted by short periods
    of rapid speciation is called
    (a) Quantum evolution (b) Punctual equilibria
    (c) Macroevolution (d) Irregular modes
  48. The nature of the pre-biotic environment on the earth was
    (a) Reducing (b) Oxidizing
    (c) Nitrifying (d) Rich in ozone
  49. The condition which leads to a reduction in population to only a few individuals is called
    (a) Population oscillation (b) Migration
    (c) Population crash (d) Bottleneck phenomenon
  50. Acid rain is caused by
    (a) CO and CO2 (b) CO2 and O2
    (c) O2 and CO (d) SO2 and NO2
  51. CO2 present in the atmosphere
    (a) Helps in stopping the sun radiation reaching the earth surface
    (b) Works only as insulator protecting the earth from cooling
    (c) Merely gives life to plants
    (d) Absorbs and reradiates some of the longer-wave length infra-red radiation that otherwise would be transmitted back into the space from the surface of the earth
  52. The most productive ecosystem in the biosphere is
    (a) Desert (b) Open ocean
    (c) Estuary (d) Tundra
  53. Biodegradable plastics are made using the following bacterial compounds
    (a) Proteins (b) Lipids
    (c) Poly b-hydroxy alconates (d) Alkaloids
  54. Population of plants within a species adapted genetically to a particular habitat but able to cross freely with other plants of the same species is called
    (a) Ecophene (b) Ecad
    (c) Ecotype (d) Ecotone
  55. Biotic potential of a species is
    (a) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
    (b) Theoretical maximum production of new individuals
    (c) Difference between the intrinsic rate and the rate that occurs in an actual field condition
    (d) Instantaneous coefficient of population growth
  56. Maximum stratospheric ozone concentration occurs above
    (a) Equator (b) temperate latitudes
    (c) Poles (d) Subtropical latitudes
  57. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is measure of
    (a) Amount of dissolved oxygen present in a water body
    (b) The rate anaerobic decomposition of organic matter
    (c) The amount of dissolved oxygen required to oxidize the organic matter present in the water by aerobic decomposers
    (d) The rate of consumption of dissolved oxygen by aerobic decomposers for decomposing the organic matter present in the water body
  58. The intrinsic rate of population increase is high
    (a) For a population consisting of more juveniles
    (b) For a population consisting of more reproductive females
    (c) For a population consisting of more reproductive males
    (d) For a population consisting of more senescent individuals
  59. Chronologic ordering of species is based on
    (a) Electrophoretic mobility of protein
    (b) Molecular weights of proteins
    (c) Number of amino acids substituted in a protein molecule
    (d) 2-D analysis of proteins
  60. The correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy in eukaryotes is
    (a) Phylum – class – order – family – genus – species
    (b) Class – order – phylum – family – genus – species
    (c) Phylum – order – class – family – genus – species
    (d) Phylum – family – class – order – genus – species
  61. A classic example of utilization of biodiversity in green revolution is
    (a) Cryopreservation of germplasm
    (b) in vitro regeneration of somatic hybrids
    (c) Photoperiod insensitivity
    (d) Use of frozen gametes
  62. The species replacement that occurs over very large geographic region is described as
    (a) Alpha diversity (b) Beta diversity
    (c) Gamma diversity (d) Point diversity
  63. Consider an island population where a majority of the individuals display hexadactylyty of their hands. Evolutionary biologist would readily explain this phenomenon based on
    (a) Dominance of hexadactyl condition
    (b) Small size of founder population
    (c) Novel mutation
    (d) Improved fitness and adaptation of the hexadactyl individuals
  64. Populations that are morphologically similar but do not interbreed for physiological or behavioural reasons are grouped as
    (a) Races (b) Varieties
    (c) Sub-species (d) Sibling species
  65. Which is the hot-spot for biodiversity in India?
    (a) Western ghats (b) Eastern ghats
    (c) Central ghats (d) Upper Gangetic ghats
  66. When all the original material collected by the author who described a new species, is lost, the specimen designated to serve as nomenclatural type is
    (a) Neotype (b) Lecotype
    (c) Isotype (d) Holotype
  67. In a stable ecosystem the food chain mostly contains
    (a) Three to five links (b) Two links
    (c) Six links (d) Seven links
  68. A predation series linking animals to ultimate plant food is called
    (a) Food web (b) Tropic level
    (c) Food cycle (d) Food chain
  69. What is a keystone species?
    (a) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organisation and survival
    (b) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organization
    (c) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
    (d) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species
  70. DNA fingerprinting refers to
    (a) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
    (b) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
    (c) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
    (d) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals

Answer keys of All Test Series are attached at the end of this post.

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CSIR NET Life Science Test Series : ANSWER KEYS (All Tests)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 01 : Answer Key
PART – A
01. (b) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (a) 06. (a) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
PART – B
01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (b) 05. (c) 06. (c) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (b)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 02 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (b) 05. (d) 06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (c) 09. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
Part – B
01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (a) 05. (d) 06. (d) 07. (c) 08. (c) 09. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (a)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 03 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (c) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (b) 06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
Part – B
01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (b) 06. (d) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (c)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 04 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (c) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (a) 06. (b) 07. (b) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
Part – B
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (d) 06. (b) 07. (b) 08. (b) 09. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (b)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 05 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (a) 06. (b) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
Part – B
01. (d) 02. (a) 03. (d) 04. (b) 05. (a) 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (a)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 06 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (d) 05. (b) 06. (b) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
Part – B
01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (b) 06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (c) 09. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 07 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (b) 02. (a) 03. (a) 04. (b) 05. (c) 06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
Part – B
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (d) 04. (d) 05. (b) 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 08 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (a) 04. (c) 05. (c) 06. (c) 07. (a) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
Part – B
01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (c) 05. (a) 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (c)

  1. CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 09 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (a) 06. (b) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)
Part – B
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (d) 06. (c) 07. (b) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)

  • CSIR NET Life Science Test Series 10 : Answer Key
Part – A
01. (b) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (c) 06. (a) 07. (d) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
Part – B
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (c) 05. (c) 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a)

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