CUET Biology mock of Human health and disease 2023

Here you will get CUET (UG) Biology mock test of chapter human health and disease along with their answer key provided at the end . CUET mock test is what alot of student is looking for to test their preparation level , so we on examflame is providing chapterwise CUET biology mock test according to CUET Biology syllabus published by NTA .The CUET biology mock test provided here free to test your weak areas and improve it before the actual exam .

CUET Biology mock of Human health and disease 2023
CUET Biology mock of Human health and disease 2023

Candidates are strongly advised to take advantage of the free CUET Biology mock test of chapter human health and disease and plan a meticulous strategy for the CUET. A candidate can gain a clear understanding of the exam by becoming familiar with the exam pattern, questions, and syllabus through the CUET mock test .These mock tests help you in your CUET preparation. Candidates can improve their speed and accuracy in answering questions by taking the CUET biology Chapter-wise mock test with answers key provided below . 

CUET (UG) Biology Human health and disease mock test :

  1. Which of the following adversely affects human health?
    (a) Change in lifestyle (b) Genetic disorders
    (c) Rest and exercise (d) Both (a) and (b)
  2. Human health cannot be maintained by
    (a) maintaining personal hygiene
    (b) consuming a diet rich in carbohydrate only
    (c) regular physical exercise
    (d) None of the above
  3. Measures for personal hygiene include.
    (a) Intake of clean drinking water
    (b) Keeping the body clean
    (c) Disinfection of water resources
    (d) Both (a) and (b)
  4. Salmonella typhi generally enters the small intestine through …….A……… and migrates to other body parts through ……..B…….. . The most appropriate combination to fill the blanks is
    (a) A–contaminated food and water; B–blood
    (b) A–contaminated food; B–blood
    (c) A–skin; B–blood
    (d) A–air; B–blood
  5. Common symptoms of typhoid are
    (a) high fever 39°C to 40°C and weakness
    (b) stomach pain and constipation
    (c) headache and loss of appetite
    (d) All of the above
  6. Which of the following health disorder includes symptoms of fever, chills, cough, headache, grey to bluish lips and fingers nails?
    (a) Filariasis (b) Typhoid (c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria
  7. Infection of pneumonia occurs due to
    (a) droplets released from an infected person
    (b) released droplets/aerosols inhaled by healthy person
    (c) sharing contaminated objects such as glasses and utensils with an infected person
    (d) All of the above
  8. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
    (a) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria
    (b) Spleen of infected person
    (c) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
    (d) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
  1. Which of the following toxic substances is responsible for the high malarial fever?
    (a) Haemoglobin (b) Haemocyanin
    (c) Haemozoin (d) Haemoriden
  2. Plasmodium completes its life cycle in two hosts. Asexual phase in …… host and sexual phase in …… host. The correct option with words to fill the blanks is
    (a) human; Culex mosquito
    (b) human; female Anopheles mosquito
    (c) human; Aedes mosquito
    (d) human; male Anopheles mosquito
  3. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of
    (a) large intestine (b) liver
    (c) lungs (d) kidney
  4. Give the name of two helminths, which cause ascariasis and filariasis, respectively.
    (a) Ascaris and Wuchereria
    (b) Wuchereria and Ascaris
    (c) Roundworm and flatworm
    (d) Plasmodium and Wuchereria
  5. Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
    (a) Trichophyton (b) Wuchereria
    (c) E. coli (d) Ascaris
  6. Elephantiasis causing organism belongs to
    (a) Aschelminthes (b) Platyhelminthes
    (c) Cnidaria (d) Porifera
  7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    (a) Filariasis — Wuchereria
    (b) Syphilis — Trichuris trichiura
    (c) Plague — Yersinia pestis
    (d) Dengue fever — Flavi-ribo virus
  8. The group of diseases carried (transmitted) by insects are
    (a) typhoid, jaundice, tuberculosis
    (b) mumps, measles, smallpox
    (c) scabies, ringworm, swine flu
    (d) malaria, filaria, yellow fever
  9. Fungi belonging to genera–Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for
    (a) ringworm infection (b) skin allergy
    (c) amoebiasis (d) measles
  1. Gambusia is a fish which can control the mosquito borne disease like
    (a) dengue (b) malaria
    (c) chikungunya (d) All of these
  2. Ability of the body to fight against the disease causing organisms is called
    (a) vulnerability (b) susceptibility
    (c) irritability (d) immunity
  3. Non-specific host defence that exists prior to the exposure to an antigen is called
    (a) acquired immunity (b) passive immunity
    (c) innate immunity (d) active immunity
  4. Full form of PMNL is
    (a) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes
    (b) Para Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
    (c) Penta Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes
    (d) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
  5. A person has developed interferons in his body. He seems to carry an infection of
    (a) typhoid (b) filariasis (c) malaria (d) measles
  6. Each antibody has …A… polypeptide chains, ..B.. small chains called …C… chains and ….D… longer chains called …E… chains. The antibody, therefore, is represented as … F.. Here A to F refers to
    (a) A–four, B–two, C–light, D–two, E–heavy, F–H2L2
    (b) A–six, B–three, C–light, D–three, E–heavy, F–H3L2
    (c) A–two, B–one, C–light, D–one, E–heavy, F–H1L1
    (d) A–five, B–two, C–light, D–three, E–heavy, F–H2L2
  7. Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin (antibody) is
    (a) variable region of heavy chain
    (b) variable region of light chain
    (c) constant region of light chain
    (d) variable region of both heavy and light chain
  8. Humoral immunity is also called as
    (a) antibody mediated immunity
    (b) non-specific immune response
    (c) antigen mediated immunity
    (d) None of the above
  9. Humoral immunity is mediated by
    (a) B-cells (b) T-cells
    (c) macrophages (d) monocytes
  10. Active immunity development is related to
    (a) natural killer cells (b) memory cells
    (c) helper T-cells (d) suppressor T-cells
  1. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains
    (a) monocytes (b) macrophages
    (c) immunoglobulin-A (d) natural killer cells
  2. What is injected into the patient’s body for determining the cause of allergy?
    (a) Allergen to which the patient is allergic
    (b) IgG
    (c) IgE
    (d) Steroids
  3. Which of the given sets include the primary lymphoid organs?
    (a) Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen
    (b) Bone marrow and thymus
    (c) Bone marrow, Peyer’s patches and thymus
    (d) Thymus, liver and tonsils
  4. Thymus is a lobed organ located near the…… A ….. and beneath the ….B…. . The most appropriate combination for A and B is
    (a) A–heart; B–breast bone (b) A–liver; B–ribs
    (c) A–heart; B–ribs (d) A–intestine; B–ribs
  5. T-lymphocytes mature in the ……….. while B-lymphocyte mature in the …….. . Most appropriate combination of words to fill the blanks is
    (a) thymus; bone marrow
    (b) bone marrow; thymus
    (c) thyroid; bone marrow
    (d) yellow bone marrow; red bone marrow
  6. Full form of MALT is
    (a) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
    (b) Memory Associated Lymphoid Tissue
    (c) Memory Associated Lymphocyte Tissue
    (d) Mucosa Associated Lymphocyte Tissue
  7. Genetic material found in Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is
    (a) double-stranded RNA (b) single-stranded RNA
    (c) double-stranded DNA (d) single-stranded DNA
  8. Transmission of HIV infection from infected mother to her child occurs through
    (a) liver (b) placenta
    (c) skin (d) None of these
  9. A patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS). Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
    (a) ELISA (b) MRT
    (c) Ultrasound (d) WIDAL
  1. The word NACO stands for
    (a) National AIDS Control Organisation
    (b) Non-governmental AIDS Control Organisation
    (c) National Agrochemical Organistation
    (d) Both (b) and (c)
  2. The property of normal cells by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth is called
    (a) contact inhibition (b) metastasis
    (c) benign tumour (d) metagenesis
  3. The uncontrolled proliferation of cancerous cells produces masses of cells, called
    (a) tumours (b) neoplastic cells
    (c) protooncomass (d) Both (a) and (b)
  4. Physical carcinogens, e.g. UV-ray, X-ray and g-rays cause
    (a) DNA damage (b) RNA damage
    (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Protein damage
  5. Normal cell have genes called ……..A….. which are present in inactivated state but under certain conditions like …..B… they get transformed to …C…. Here A, B and C refers to
    (a) A–cellular oncogenes, B–mutation, C–cancer causing oncogenes
    (b) A–viral oncogenes, B–mutation, C–disease causing genes
    (c) A–viral oncogenes, B–mutation, C–tumour causing genes
    (d) None of the above
  6. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are
    (a) starved of mutation (b) undergoing rapid division
    (c) different in structure (d) non-dividing
  7. Alpha-interferons
    (a) activate the immune system
    (b) help in destroying the tumour
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) None of the above
  1. Cannabinoid are the group of chemicals, which interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in
    (a) brain (b) neuron
    (c) nephron (d) dendron
  2. Cannabinoids are obtained from
    (a) inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa
    (b) fruits of the plant Papaver somniferum
    (c) latex of the plant Cannabis sativa
    (d) plant Papaver somniferum inflorescence

CUET (UG) Biology human health and disease mock answers :

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a)

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