Free UGC NET Environmental Sciences Mock Test 2022 in English

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UGC NET Environmental Sciences Mock Test 2022 [Free]


1. Assertion (A): Every country should integrate the principles of sustainable development into its policies and programmes.

Reason (R): Environmental resources are a Nation’s wealth.

Choose the correct code from the following:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


3. In the redox reaction given below, which one of the substrates in forward reaction is oxidized? 2Fe3+ + H2 → 2Fe2+ + 2H+

(A) Fe3+

(B) H2

(C) H+

(D) Fe2+


4. If soil in a given area is wetted and allowed to drain till percolation is stopped, the amount of water thus retained is called

(A) Storage capacity

(B) Capillary capacity

(C) Hygroscopic capacity

(D) Field capacity


5. Quantity of 5M HCl required for preparing 1000 ml of 0.1 M HCl is,

(A) 20 ml

(B) 2 ml

(C) 200 ml

(D) 100 ml


6. The method which can be used for the softening of water having high calcium, high magnesium-carbonate hardness and some noncarbonated hardness

(A) single-stage line process.

(B) Excess lime process.

(C) Single stage lime-soda ash process.

(D) Excess lime-soda ash process.


7. Spotted deer, Asiatic wild ass, Black buck are,

(A) Endangered species

(B) Vulnerable species

(C) Threatened species

(D) Key species


8. Specific mortality of members of a population is expressed by

(A) Life table

(B) Survivorship curve

(C) Rate of mortality

(D) Rate of fecundity


9. Which group of vertebrate comprises maximum number of endangered species?

(A) Fish

(B) Amphibia

(C) Reptiles

(D) Birds


10. Under anaerobic condition denitrifying Pseudomonas changes,

(A) Nitrate to molecular nitrogen

(B) Nitrate to ammonia

(C) Nitrate to Nitrite

(D) Nitrite to Nitrate


11. The Phenomenon of having higher number of species in Eco tone is called

(A) Dominance effect

(B) Edge effect

(C) Abundance

(D) Frequency


12. Which specific common feature is not found in zooplankton and rabbit?

(A) Both are animals

(B) Both are primary consumers

(C) Both are carnivores

(D) Both are herbivores


13. The following exogenous and endogenous factors are the cause of extinction of animal species:

I. Ecological niche

II. Decrease in reproductive potency.

III. Lesser adaptability to fluctuating environment.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) I and II

(D) I, II and III


14. Positive mass balance of glaciers has been recently reported from

(A) Eastern Himalayas

(B) Nepal Himalayas

(C) Western Himalayas

(D) Karakoram


15. Which of the following will lead to reduction in greenhouse gases in atmosphere?

(A) Increased chemical weathering of rocks.

(B) Volcanic eruption

(C) Lowering of mean sea level

(D) An increase in melting of glacial ice


16. The unconsolidated material with highest permeability is

(A) Landslide with clayey component

(B) Altered volcanic ash

(C) Well sorted alluvial sand

(D) Buried mud flows


17. Which of the following component of cryosphere has the longest life?

(A) Sea ice

(B) Icebergs

(C) Valley glaciers

(D) Ice sheets


18. Aerobic bacteria is most active in

(A) Moist and saturated soil

(B) Moist and non-saturated soil

(C) Alluvial soil

(D) Permafrost


19. Andisols are formed by

(A) Biological activity

(B) Erosion by wind

(C) Erosion by waves

(D) Volcanoes


20. In case of photovoltaic cell, the maximum theoretical efficiency of conversion is

(A) ~ 45 %

(B) ~ 30 %

(C) ~ 25 %

(D) ~ 50 %


21. Consider an ideal wind power generator of the wind speed increases 3 times, the power output would increase by how many times?

(A) 3

(B) 9

(C) 27

(D) 81


22. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of total CO2 emissions from various countries at present.

(A) Britain < India < China < USA

(B) India < Britain < China < USA

(C) Britain < USA < India < China

(D) Britain < India < USA < China


23. Arsenic compounds cause

(A) Dwarfism

(B) Dermatitis

(C) Thyrotoxicosis

(D) Wilson’s disease


24. What is the pE value in an acid mine water sample having [Fe2+] = 7.03 × 10–3 M and [Fe3+] = 3.71 × 10–4 M

(A) 10.5

(B) 12.5

(C) 14.5

(D) 18.5


25. Assertion (A): Chronic exposure to ozone is a possible contributor to forest decline.

Reason (R): Surface ozone is a greenhouse gas.

Identify the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


26. Identify the most dominant pollutant in terms of its concentration levels in urban atmosphere.

(A) Oxides of nitrogen

(B) Oxides of sulphur

(C) Particulate matter

(D) Carbon monoxide


27. The main constituents of photochemical smog are

(A) Oxides of sulphur and CO

(B) Oxides of sulphur and hydrocarbons

(C) Oxides of nitrogen and CO

(D) Oxides of nitrogen, hydrocarbons and ozone


28. The air borne fraction of carbon is

(A) ~ 0.72

(B) ~ 0.62

(C) ~ 0.46

(D) ~ 0.38


29. The noise index Leq is used for noise standards in ambient environment of urban areas. The prescribed duration of the integration associated with Leq is

(A) 12 hours

(B) 8 hours

(C) 1 hour

(D) 30 minutes


30. In alkaline soils, which of the following is not present in soluble state?

(A) Phosphorous

(B) Calcium

(C) Nitrates

(D) Potassium


31. Which one of the following is not a post audit activity under environmental audit process?

(A) Review of draft report by Law department.

(B) Issue of final report to functional specialist.

(C) Develop action plan to establish responsibility.

(D) Report audit findings.


32. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Specification for environmental management system ISO 14001

(B) Environmental performance evaluation ISO 14040

(C) Guidelines for environmental auditing ISO 14000

(D) Environmental labels and declaration ISO 14004


33. In accordance with the Indian EIA notification 2006, within how many days if Environmental Appraisal Committee does not specify the Terms of Reference, the proponent can go ahead with its own Terms of Reference.

(A) 15 days

(B) 45 days

(C) 60 days

(D) 90 days


34. Which is the correct sequence for impact assessment process in EIA?

(A) Description of Environment → Identification of impacts → Prediction of impacts → Evaluation of impacts → Identification of mitigation needs.

(B) Identification of impacts → Prediction of impacts → Evaluation of impacts →Identification of mitigation needs.

(C) Identification of impacts → Description of Environment → Prediction of impacts → Evaluation of impacts → Identification of mitigation needs.

(D) Prediction of impacts → Identification of impacts → Description of environment → Evaluation of impacts → Identification of mitigation needs.


35. Quantifying the energy and raw material requirement as a part of life cycle assessment, is termed as

(A) Life Cycle improvement analysis.

(B) Life Cycle impact analysis.

(C) Life Cycle inventory.

(D) Life Cycle pre-requisites.


36. Which of the following pertains to “high-waste approach” in dealing with the solid and hazardous wastes?

(A) Burying and burning

(B) Recycling

(C) Composting

(D) Reusing


37. Assertion (A): Dumping of sewage to river water may decrease oxygen even below 4 mg/l.

Reason (R): Dumping of sewage pollutes river water heavily.

Identify the correct answer:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true with (R) being the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.


38. In most of the studies, a large sample size is anticipated to

(A) Get a low level of precision.

(B) Maximize the sampling error.

(C) Get a high level of precision.

(D) Maximize the standard deviation.


39. The geometric mean of 4, 8 and 16 is

(A) 9.3

(B) 8.0

(C) 4.8

(D) 10.2


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41. The mean and standard deviation of a Binomial distribution are 9 and 1, respectively. The first moment of the distribution is

(A) 9

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) 0


42. Which one of the following is used in manufacturing flexible plastic bags and sheets?

(A) Polystyrene (PS)

(B) Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)

(C) Low density polyethylene (LDPE)

(D) TEFLON


43. Which one of the following is a non-formal environment education and awareness programme?

(A) Environmental appreciation courses.

(B) National Environment Awareness Campaign.

(C) Environmental Education in school system.

(D) Environmental Management Business Studies.


44. Bio parks are conceived, developed and managed with a goal of conservation of biodiversity through,

(i) Development of educational and scientific activities.

(ii) Promoting silviculture and monoculture.

(iii) Promoting local community welfare without harming the natural habitat.

Choose the correct answer from the codes:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)


45. In about a 7 metre deep pond the series of vegetation development will be

(A) Submerged → Floating → Reed → Herb

(B) Floating → Submerged → Reed → Herb

(C) Floating → Reed → Submerged → Herb

(D) Submerged → Reed → Floating → Herb


46. In terrestrial ecosystems, roughly how much NPP ends up being broken down by decomposers?

(A) 90 %

(B) 70 %

(C) 50 %

(D) 10 %


47. Which of the following BOD level waste water is permitted to be released inlands by industries under water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?

(A) 30 mg/l

(B) 80 mg/l

(C) 100 mg/l

(D) 150 mg/l


48. Hydraulic conductivity is a function of

(A) medium alone

(B) Fluid alone

(C) Either fluid or medium

(D) Both fluid and medium


49. Dachigan sanctuary is associated with

(A) Hangul

(B) Rhinoceros

(C) Barking deer

(D) Leopard


50. Rio+20 summit was held in

(A) Durban

(B) Johannesburg

(C) Rio de Janeiro

(D) Cancun

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Answer Key (if you find any answer wrong, feel free to comment below)

01.(B)11.(B)21.(D)31.(D)41.(D)
02.(A)12.(C)22.(B)32.(A)42.(C)
03.(B)13.(D)23.(C)33.(C)43.(B)
04.(D)14.(D)24.(D)34.(A)44.(C)
05.(A)15.(A)25.(B)35.(C)45.(A)
06.(D)16.(C)26.(D)36.(A)46.(A)
07.(B)17.(D)27.(D)37.(A)47.(A)
08.(B)18.(B)28.(C)38.(C)48.(D)
09.(D)19.(D)29.(B)39.(B)49.(A)
10.(A)20.(A)30.(A)40.(A)50.(C)

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