Free UGC NET Forensic Science Mock Test 2022 in English

UGC NET Forensic Science Mock Test for Free only On and take your preparation to the another levelThese Questions are prepared as per the Latest Syllabus of UGC NET Forensic Science 2022 . Practicing mock tests/Test series, you will get an idea about how and which type of Question will ask in the Examination. It also boost your confidence level. Also Solve UGC NET Forensic Science Previous Year Question Paper. And Don’t Forget to Share with Your Friends.

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UGC NET Forensic Science Mock Test 2022 [Free]

1. A dead body for autopsy is to be preserved in a cold chamber whose preferred temperature is

(A) – 4 °C

(B) 0 °C

(C) 4 °C

(D) 10 °C

2. Which of the following is not a feature of immediate change after death?

(A) Cessation of brain function

(B) Cessation of heart function

(C) Cooling of the body

(D) Stoppage of respiration

3. Match the following:

List – I                        List – II

(a) Parathion                 i. O, O-dimethyl-Sdithiophosphate

(b) Dimethoate            ii. O, O-Dimethyl dithiophosphate of diethyl mercaptosuccinate

(c) Phosphamidon       iii. O, O-diethyl-O-pnitrophenylthiophosphate

(d) Malathion              iv. O, (2-chloro-2- diethyl carbamoyl)- 1-methyl-vinyl-O, O-di methmylphosphate


(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       iii         i           iv         ii

(B)       i           ii          iii         iv

(C)       iii         ii          i           iv

(D)       ii          iii         i           ii

4. Match the following:

List – I                        List – II

(a) Delusion                 i. Desire to steal articles of small value

(b) Hallucination         ii. False belief which is not a fact

(c) Illusion                   iii. False perception without a stimulus

(d) Kleptomania          iv. False interpretation of a stimulus


(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       iii         iv         i           ii

(B)       ii          iii         iv         i

(C)       i           ii          iii         iv

(D)       iv         i           ii          iii

5. The test to identify vaginal epithelialcells in a case of sexual assault is

(A) Barberio’s test

(B) Florence’s test

(C) Lugol’s iodine test

(D) Precipitin test

6. Rule of Hasse helps in the determination of

(A) Age of Fetus

(B) Congenital anomalies of fetus

(C) Sex of fetus

(D) Stature of fetus

7. Which of the following conditions does not resemble rigor mortis?

(A) Cold stiffening

(B) Gas stiffening

(C) Pugilistic attitude

(D) Tetanus

8. The total number of temporary molars in a child aged 7 years

(A) Zero

(B) Four

(C) eight

(D) twelve

9. Fine, white lathery froth that is copious and tenacious around mouth and nostrils is suggestive of death due to

(A) Drowning

(B) Epilepsy

(C) Morphine poisoning

(D) Snake bite

10. Which is the best bone for determination of sex from skeletal remains?

(A) Skull

(B) Pelvis

(C) Scaphoid

(D) Pisiform

11. Intersex means

(A) Intermingling of sexual traits in a person

(B) Determination of fetal sex

(C) Female homosexuality

(D) Sodomy

12. The diameter of LG shot is

(A) 9.14 mm

(B) 8.43 mm

(C) 6.83 mm

(D) 5.16 mm

13. Derringers are single shot pistols, which possess

(A) Single barrel

(B) Multiple barrels

(C) Choke in the barrel

(D) Magazine

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15. In the firing mechanism of firearm trombone action is also called as

(a) Pump action

(b) Lever action

(c) Bolt action

(d) Slide action


(A) (a) and (b) are correct

(B) (a) and (c) are correct

(C) (b) and (d) are correct

(D) (a) and (d) are correct

16. The probable time of last fire from a firearm can be determined by

(A) Dispersion of pellets

(B) Fouling

(C) Trajectory of projectile

(D) Muzzle velocity of projectile

17. Assertion (A): In Absorption-Inhibition method, specificabsorption is allowed to proceed by placing antigenic material in contact with its homologous antibody.

Reason (R): This absorption renders the serum less potent, and the inhibition of its activity is measured.


(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

18. The major metabolite of benzodiazepines is

(A) Benzoylecgonine

(B) Oxymorphone

(C) THC-acid

(D) Desmethyldiazepam

19. The presence of BHC is established by separation of its constituents by


(B) Northern blotting

(C) Chromatography

(D) Southern blotting

20. Ester test is done for the identification of which of the following poisons?

(A) Dhatura

(B) Opium

(C) Calatropis

(D) Abrus

21. Which of the following reagents is used to identify the vaginal secretion on the basis of detecting glycogenated epithelial cells?

(A) Benzidene reagent

(B) Periodic acid-schiff reagent

(C) Nessler’s reagent

(D) Iodoplatinate reagent

22. The presence of blood in the semen causing pink or reddish colour is known as

(A) Azoospermia

(B) Histospermia

(C) Oligospermia

(D) Hematospermia

23. Double helix structure of DNA was reported by

(A) Watson and Crick

(B) Saikai and Mullis

(C) Oswald Avery

(D) Alec Jeffreys

24. Individuals who produce A, B and H blood group specific substances in body fluids are called as

(A) Secretors

(B) Non-secretors

(C) Lewis positive

(D) Lewis negative

25. In STR loci, the tandem repeat unit consists of

(A) 2-7 bp

(B) 242 bp

(C) 1100 bp

(D) 35 bp

26. The major advantage of the SEM includes the following except

(A) Its great depth of field

(B) Its high resolution

(C) Its high magnification

(D) Its ability to polarize light

27. IR spectra fail to distinguish

(A) Tautomer

(B) Enantiomers

(C) Conformers

(D) Stereoisomers

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29. Match the following:

List – I                                    List – II

(a) Ultraviolet light                 i. 2.5 – 25 μ

(b) Visible light                       ii. 2000 – 4000 °A

(c) X-ray                                  iii. 4000 – 8000 °A

(d) Near IR region                  iv. 0.1 – 100 °A


(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       ii          i           iv         iii

(B)       iv         iii         ii          i

(C)       ii          iii         iv         i

(D)       iii         i           ii          iv

30. First G.E.Q.D. in India was started at

(A) Kolkata

(B) Shimla

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Delhi

31. Juvenile courts are meant for trial of

(A) Mentally ill persons

(B) Foreign citizens

(C) Criminal lawyers

(D) Children below 18 years

32. Which of the following courts is not a court of trial?

(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) First Class Judicial Magistrate

(C) Additional District and Session Judge

(D) Hight Court

33. Match the following:

List – I                        List – II

(a) DNA                      i. Osborn

(b) Documents            ii. Hatcher

(c) Ballistics                iii. Landsteiner

(d) Blood                    iv. Jefferys


(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       iv         i           ii          iii

(B)       i           ii          iii         iv

(C)       iv         iii         i           ii

(D)       iv         ii          i           iii

34. After collecting the blood stained soil from the scene, it should be sent for examination:

(A) As such without drying

(B) After drying in oven

(C) After drying under fan

(D) After drying under shade

35. Prostate-specific antigen is also called as

(A) Proteinase K

(B) Amylase

(C) P30

(D) Ptylase

36. Seminal acid-phosphatase is produced in the

(A) Adrenal gland

(B) Prostate gland

(C) Thyroid gland

(D) Pituitary gland

37. Microscopic air packets or vacuoles within the cortex of hair is called as

(A) Ovoid bodies

(B) Protein fibrils

(C) Cortical fussi

(D) Vacuum pockets

38. Creatinine in urine reacts with picric acid to form

(A) Di-sodium picrate

(B) Ammonium picrate

(C) Albumin picrate

(D) Creatinine picrate

39. Graying hair is as a result of loss of

(A) tyrosinase activity

(B) Proteinase activity

(C) Pectinase activity

(D) glucomylase activity

40. Type lines can be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround ______.

(A) Pattern area

(B) Inner terminus

(C) Outer terminus

(D) Core

41. All the ten fingers having loop pattern will have classification as _________.

(A) 0/0

(B) 1/1

(C) 32/32

(D) 64/64

42. _________ technique is used to decipher latent finger-prints on wet non-porous surfaces.

(A) Small Particle Reagent (SPR)

(B) Ninhydrin

(C) Crystal violet

(D) Amido Black

43. Which of the following are examples of diacritic marks in handwriting?

(A) Dots of i and j

(B) loops of g and j

(C) Curves of i and j

(D) Loops of p and y

44. Which of the following techniques is considered effective to develop latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces?

(A) Super glue

(B) Ninhydrin

(C) Diazafluorenone (DFO)

(D) Crystal violet

45. A bright halo observed near the border of a glass particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index is known as

(A) Refractive point

(B) Birefringence

(C) A straight line

(D) Becke line

46. Compressive strength analysis is done in case of

(A) Paint smear

(B) Hair

(C) Footprint

(D) Cement block

47. The following compound is not present in Borosilicate glass:

(A) Silica (SiO2)

(B) K2O

(C) Al2O3

(D) CaO

48. 4R rule of glass fracture relates to

(A) Concentric fracture

(B) Radial fracture

(C) Rib mark

(D) Hackle mark

49. Match the following ingredients of paint:

List – I                        List – II

(a) Pigment                  i. Zirconium napthemate

(b) Oil                          ii. Soya alkyd resin

(c) Drier                       iii. Titanium oxide

(d) Binder                   iv. Linseed oil


(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       iii         i           iv         ii

(B)       i           iii         iv         ii

(C)       ii          iv         i           iii

(D)       iii         iv         i           ii

50. Radioactivity of a substance can be measured by

(A) Geiger Muller Counter

(B) Neon tubes

(C) Radiometric methods

(D) Photomultiplier tubes

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