Free UGC NET Labour Welfare Mock Test 2022 in English

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UGC NET Labour Welfare Mock Test 2022 [Free]


1. Match the following:

Thinker                                                                        Principles

a. Mary Parker Follett                                               i. Co-ordination

b. Henry Fayol                                                         ii. Elements of Management

c. F.W. Taylor                                                           iii. Scientific methods

d. Gilbreth and Taylor                                              iv. Quantitative measurement

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       i           ii          iii         iv

(B)       iv         iii         ii          i

(C)       iv         ii          i           iii

(D)       ii          iv         iii         i


2. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of planning?

(A) It deals with future

(B) It involves selection of particular course of action

(C) It is pervasive

(D) It is not strategic


3. Premature evaluation is a type of

(A) semantic barrier

(B) psychological barrier

(C) organisational barrier

(D) personal barrier


4. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach?

(A) A system is a combination of parts

(B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another

(C) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary

(D) System transforms inputs into outputs


5. Which of the following organisations is a two-dimensional structure?

(A) Functional structure

(B) Matrix structure

(C) Line structure

(D) Divisional structure


6. Job description includes information about

(A) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.

(B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.

(C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.

(D) Job responsibilities, duties and qualifications for performance.


7. Differentiation between line and staff functions is necessary because it helps in

(A) providing specialized services.

(B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.

(C) maintaining accountability.

(D) All the above.


8. Which of the following refers to analysis of handwriting to determine writer’s basic personality traits?

(A) Kinesics

(B) Graphology

(C) Polygraphy

(D) Both (B) and (C)


9. The five basic features of Scanlon plan of incentive payment are

(A) control, individuality, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.

(B) cooperation, identity, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.

(C) control, individuality, commitment, involvement , and sharing of benefits.

(D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement and sharing of profits.


10. Which of the following is a process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organisational leadership to enhance performance?

(A) Manpower planning

(B) Career planning

(C) Succession planning

(D) Human Resource planning


11. Who is the profounder of the socio-psychological approach to Human Resource Development?

(A) T.W. Schultz

(B) Lorraine Corner

(C) Lim Teck Ghee

(D) David McClelland


12. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true:

(A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels

(B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive

(C) Competency mapping, performance appraisal and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at task level only

(D) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis


13. Assertion (A): Performance Appraisal cannot be error free and unbiased.

Reason (R): The Appraisal Methods are covertly influenced by human judgement which may be vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory impulses.

(A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.

(B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.

(C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion (A).

(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right, and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).


14. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:

Theories of Career Planning                                                    Propagators

a. Career Anchor Model                                                         i. John Holland

b. Career Path Model                                                              ii. D.T. Hall

c. Career Choice Model                                                          iii. Edgar Schien

d. A Career Stages Model                                                      iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       ii          iii         i           iv

(B)       iii         ii          iv         i

(C)       iii         iv         i           ii

(D)       ii          iv         iii         i


15. When Human Relations training is given to managers the method adopted is:

(A) In-Basket Exercise

(B) Role-play method

(C) Managerial Grid Training

(D) Sensitivity Training


16. When team-building can be attempted by creating artificial teams in which people get opportunity to experiment and learn from their behaviour in a less threatening context, it is based on:

(A) Behaviour Modification Approach

(B) Action Research Approach

(C) Simulation Approach

(D) Team Role Approach


17. Match the Themes with the respective approaches:

Approaches                                                     Themes

a. Sociotechnical system approach                  i. Appropriate managerial behaviour depends on elements of the situation

b. Democratic approach                                  ii. employees’ attitudes influence their perception of work and their work experiences shape their attitudes

c. Contingency approach                                iii. Technology greatly influences organisational culture and structure which influence the attitude towards work.

d. Interactional approach                                iv. Involvement and empowerment of workers improve productivity

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       i           iii         iv         ii

(B)       iii         iv         ii          i

(C)       iii         iv         i           ii

(D)       iii         ii          iv         i


18. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by depicting what happens after performance?

(A) Harold Kelly

(B) Edward Tolman

(C) Alderfer

(D) Porter and Lawler


19. Which of the following is an invisible part but a powerful template that shapes, what happens at the workplace?

(A) Organisational culture

(B) Organisational climate

(C) Organisational dynamics

(D) Organisational structure


20. Match the following:

Needs                          Refers to

a. Intrinsic                   i. Recognition by boss

b. Extrinsic                  ii. Regular salary

c. Expressed                iii. Self initiative

d. Wanted                   iv.Expecting others to initiate

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       iv         iii         i           ii

(B)       i           iv         iii         ii

(C)       ii          i           iv         iii

(D)       iii         ii          iv         i


21. The trusteeship approach to industrial relations was advocated by:

(A) Karl Marx

(B) Max Weber

(C) Allan Flanders

(D) Mahatma Gandhi


22. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of Industrial Disputes in India?

(A) National Commission on Labour

(B) Wage Board

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Standing Labour Committee


23. In which year, the International Institute of Labour studies was established?

(A) 1919

(B) 1926

(C) 1950

(D) 1960


24. Match the following Acts/Code with the provisions:

Acts/Code                                                                   Provision

a. The Trade Unions Act                                             i. Retrenched and protected workmen

b. The code of Discipline                                            ii. Collection of political forms

c. The Industrial Disputes Act                                    iii. Recognition of Unions

d. The Model standing orders under the Central Industrial Employment (standing orders) Rules.                                                                          iv. Disciplinary action for misconduct

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       ii          iii         i           iv

(B)       i           iii         iv         ii

(C)       ii          i           iv         iii

(D)       ii          iv         i           iii


25. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations?

(A) John T. Dunlop

(B) Allan Flanders

(C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie

(D) Roy Adam


26. Which of the following is not a correct statement pertaining to the meaning of trade union?

(A) It is a continuous association of wage earners for maintaining or improving the conditions of their working lives.

(B) It is a society of individuals in one or more professions for the purpose of protecting and advancing, members’ economic interest.

(C) It is a combination with an objective of regulating the relation between workmen and workmen, workmen and employer, employer and employer

(D) It is any combination, whether temporary or permanent formed primarily for regulating relations between the two parties.


27. Who formed the Bombay Millhands Association?

(A) Sorabjee Shaprujee Bengali

(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C) N.M. Lokhande

(D) V.V. Giri


28. In which country the trade union movement began with industrial unions?

(A) Great Britain

(B) U.S.A.

(C) India

(D) Canada


29. Which one is not a right of a recognized union?

(A) A right of ‘Check-off’

(B) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking

(C) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry

(D) inspecting the undertaking


30. The criteria for recognition of trade union under the code of discipline are

(a) union claiming recognition should have been functioning for atleast one year after registration.

(b) the membership of a union should cover atleast 5% of the workers in that establishment.

(c) A union can claim recognition as representative union for an industry in a local area if it has 25% workers as members in that industry in that area.

(d) When a union is recognised there shall be no change in the position for 5 years.

(A) All the provisions are correct

(B) All the provisions are incorrect

(C) Only (a) and (c) are correct

(D) Only (d) and (b) are correct


31. Which of the following subjects is not enumerated in the ‘concurrent list’ of the Indian constitution?

(A) Oil fields

(B) Trade Unions

(C) Factories

(D) Vocational and technical training of labour


32. Which of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct?

(A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s Compensation Act

(B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act

(C) This act does not have any provision relating to temporary disablement of workmen

(D) This act has a provision relating to permanent partial disablement


33. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman employee would get a medical bonus of:

(A) Rs. 3000

(B) Rs. 3500

(C) Rs. 4000

(D) Rs. 4500


34. Which section of the Factories Act deals with appointment of Welfare Officers?

(A) Section 45

(B) Section 49

(C) Section 51

(D) Section 55


35. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 1988 provides for extension of the benefits to shops and commercial establishments employing a minimum of:

(A) 7 persons

(B) 8 persons

(C) 10 persons

(D) 20 persons


36. Which of the following is not considered to be a legal status for a registered union?

(A) No power to acquire and hold both movable and immovable property

(B) Power to contract with other entities

(C) Perpetual succession and common seal

(D) A body corporate by the name under which it is registered


37. Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following cannot be appointed by the appropriate government by notification under the official gazette for deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of wages?

(A) Any commissioner for Workmen’s compensation

(B) Any officers of the Central Government exercising functions as a Labour Commissioner for any region

(C) Any officer of the State Government not below the rank of Labour Commissioner

(D) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate


38. Match the following according to the objectives of legislations:

a. Minimum Wages Act                      i. to ensure that wages payable are disbursed within prescribed time limit

b. Payment of Wages Act                   ii. to extend social justice by statutorily providing the remuneration legally due to an employed person

c. Equal Remuneration Act                 iii. to allow employees to legally share in the prosperity of the establishment contributed by capital, management and labour

d. Payment of Bonus Act                   iv. to prevent discrimination in the matter of employment and remuneration

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       iv         iii         ii          i

(B)       ii          i           iv         iii

(C)       iii         ii          iv         i

(D)       i           ii          iii         iv


39. Which of the following is ‘true’ as per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act?

An employer need not issue any “Notice of Change” in respect of 4th Schedule of the Act.

(A) Where the change is affected in pursuance of any settlement.

(B) In respect of any matter specified in the schedule affecting workmen.

(C) In respect of conditions of service applicable to any workman.

(D) None of the above.


40. Which of the following amendments of Industrial Employment (standing order) Act provided for payment of subsistence allowance by the employer to a suspended employee pending enquiry against him?

(A) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1956

(B) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1963

(C) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1982

(D) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1961


41. The ‘New Lanark’ experiment is associated with:

(A) Human Relations at workplace

(B) Networking Organisations

(C) Welfare Movement in Industries

(D) Behavioural Theory


42. Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is called:

(A) Social Insurance

(B) Mutual Insurance

(C) Social Assurance

(D) Social Assistance


43. Match the following Themes with the concepts of Labour Welfare:

Themes                                                                        Concepts of Labour Welfare

a. Labour Welfare is a desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being.                              i. Relative concept

b. In planning for welfare, the individual alone should not be taken into consideration.                                                                                          ii. Positive concept

c. Welfare work differs over time and place.             iii. Social concept

d. Welfare connotes atleast minimum desirable conditions of existence biologically and socially determined.                                                        iv. Total concept

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       ii          iv         iii         i

(B)       iii         ii          i           iv

(C)       iv         i           ii          iii

(D)       iv         iii         i           ii


44. In which of the following approaches ‘good will’ is considered as an important goal of labour welfare work?

(A) Placating Theory

(B) Public Relations Theory

(C) Fundamental Theory

(D) Philanthropic Theory


45. For which of the following categories of workers, there is no provision for welfare fund?

(A) The Beedi workers

(B) Workers working in Mica Mines

(C) Cine Workers

(D) Workers working in the Printing Industry


46. Under which segment of the Indian Constitution, the Labour Policy is designed?

a. Preamble

b. Fundamental Rights

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. Fundamental Duties

(A) Only c

(B) a, b and c

(C) a and c

(D) a, b, c and d


47. The conversion of the ‘nominal wages’ into ‘Real Wages’ is done by which of the following indices?

(A) Human Development Index

(B) Poverty Index

(C) Wholesale Price Index

(D) Consumer Price Index


48. Match the following Themes of Theories of Wages with their propagators:

Themes of Wages Theory                                                                                           Propagator

a. “Labour is the real measure of the exchangeable value of all commodities.”         i. David Ricardo

b. “The natural price of labour is that price which is necessary to enable the labourers to subsist and per- petuate their race without either increase or diminution.”               ii. Michel Kalecki

c. “Wages cannot rise unless either the wage fund increases or the number of workers decreases.”                                                                                                             iii. Adam Smith

d. “Wages are a residual, the level of real wages depending on what was left of the total product after capitalistic class had its cut.”                                                                    iv. J.S.Mill

Codes:

a          b          c          d

(A)       ii          i           iii         iv

(B)       iii         ii          iv         i

(C)       iii         i           iv         ii

(D)       iv         ii          iii         i


49. Which of the following statements about wage differentials is not true?

(A) Wage differentials can be attributed to imperfections in employment market.

(B) Social prejudices do not influence the wage differentials.

(C) Inter-industry wage differentials are bound to occur.

(D) Geographical wage differentials are a common phenomenon.


50. Which of the following formulae is used for determining Minimum wages?

(A) Adarkar’s Formula

(B) Rege Committee’s Formula

(C) Dr. Aykroid’s Formula

(D) Royal Commission on Labour’s Formula

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Answer Key (if you find any answer wrong, feel free to comment below)

01.(A)11.(D)21.(D)31.(A)41.(C)
02.(D)12.(C)22.(C)32.(C)42.(D)
03.(B)13.(D)23.(D)33.(B)43.(D)
04.(C)14.(C)24.(A)34.(B)44.(B)
05.(B)15.(D)25.(C)35.(D)45.(D)
06.(A)16.(C)26.(B)36.(A)46.(B)
07.(D)17.(C)27.(C)37.(D)47.(D)
08.(B)18.(D)28.(C)38.(B)48.(C)
09.(B)19.(A)29.(A)39.(A)49.(B)
10.(C)20.(C)30.(C)40.(C)50.(C)

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