UGC NET Paper 1 Questions with Answers | Teaching and Research Aptitude PDF (2022-2004)

Some UGC NET Paper 1 Questions with answers are given below . So, you can Practice These Questions , by which you will get an idea about the exam pattern and the level of Questions. There are total 56 Multiple Questions are given with each of four Options.

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Q1. Assertion (A): Sustainable development critical to well-being of human society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.


Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is true
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true


Answer: B


Q2. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban areas is
(A) Road trAns:port
(B) Commercial Sector
(C) Energy use in industry
(D) Power plants


Answer: B


Q3. Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue


Answer: D


Q4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.90 applications?
(A) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
(B) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.
(C) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.
(D) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.


Answer: B


Q5. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called

(A) Electronic mail
(B) Data sourcing
(C) Mail merge
(D) Spam mail


Answer: C


Q6. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data
DVD is an acronym for
(A) Digital Vector Disc
(B) Digital Volume Disc
(C) Digital Versatile Disc
(D) Digital Visualization Disc


Answer: C

Q7. Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of higher education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education


Select the correct Answer from the codes given below
(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: C


Q8. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.


Select the correct Answer from the codes given below
(A) (A), (B) and (C)
(B) (B), (C) and (D)
(C) (A), (C) and (D)
(D) (A), (B), (C) and (D)


Answer: B


Q9. India government’s target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is
(A) 1 Giga-Watt
(B) 5 Giga-Watt
(C) 10 Giga-Watt
(D) 15 Giga-Watt


Answer: B


Q10. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
(A) Rwanda
(B) Morocco
(C) South Africa
(D) Algeria


Answer: A


Q11. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydrometeorological?
(A) Snow avalanche
(B) Sea erosion
(C) Tropical cyclone
(D) Tsunami


Answer: B


Q12. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold (s) office during good behavior?
(a) Governor of State
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of high court
(d) Administrator of Union Territories Select the correct Answer from the codes given below:


(A) (a) only
(B) (c) Only
(C) (a) and (c)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: B


Q13. The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on
(A) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(B) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group
(C) Concern for human values
(D) Religious and moral practices and instructions.


Answer: C


Q14. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency. (b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct Answer from the codes given below


(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: B


Q15. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate
consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary Select the correct Answer from the
codes given below


(A) (a) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (b) and (c)


Answer: A


Q16. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made
optimal and proactive?
(A) Discussion method
(B) Buzz session method
(C) Brainstorming session method
(D) Project method


Answer: A


Q17. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(A) Social system of the country
(B) Economic status of the society
(C) Prevailing political system
(D) Educational system


Answer: D


Q18. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning. Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable. Choose the correct Answer from the following code


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true


Answer: C

Q19. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to indicate your Answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also Real learning implies rote learning


(A) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(C) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(D) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)


Answer: B


Q20. Assertion (A): Learning is a life long process. Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes. Choose the correct Answer from the following code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: B


Q21. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of
(A) Course coverage
(B) Students’ interest
(C) Learning outcomes of students
(D) Use of teaching aids in the classroom


Answer: C

Q22. The of ‘Research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?
(A) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(B) At the stage of defining the population of research
(C) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(D) At the stage of reporting the findings.


Answer: D

Q23. In which of the following, reporting format is formally
prescribed?
(A) Doctoral level thesis
(B) Conference of researchers
(C) Workshops and seminars
(D) Symposia


Answer: A


Q24. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmers. This endeavor may be related to which type of research?
(A) Evaluation Research
(B) Fundamental Research
(C) Action Research
(D) Applied Research

Answer: C


Q25. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?
(A) Reflect, observe, plan, act
(B) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(C) Plan, reflect, observe, act
(D) Act, observe, plan, reflect


Answer: B

Q26. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given
below?
(A) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(B) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(C) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of a Data; Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(D) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence


Answer: C


Passage: The last Great War, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world had little impact on Indian Literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsions against violence and adding to growing disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently
voiced in Tagore’s poems and his last testament, “Crisis in Civilization”. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help but sympathize with the England’s dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the RussiAns: fighting with their backs on the wall against ruthless Nazi hordes, and with the China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand their own country was practically under the military occupation of their own soil and the Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country.

No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies victory and was
followed by collapse of colonialism in the neighboring countries of South East Asia, would have released an upsurge of the creative energy. No doubt it did, but it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition with the inhuman slaughter of innocents and the uprooting of the millions of the people from their homeland followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi.

These tragedies along with Pakistan’s Invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a pregnant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. Both poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence served these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in terms of volume, range and variety than it ever was in past.


Q27. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence creative energy in India literature.
(A) Military occupation of one’s own soil
(B) Resistance to colonial occupation
(C) Great agony of partition
(D) Victory of Allies


Answer: C


Q28. What passage has the message that
(A) Suspicion of other countries
(B) Continuance of rivalry
(C) Menace of war
(D) National reconstruction


Answer: D


Q29. The passage has the message that
(A) Disasters are inevitable
(B) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions
(C) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape
(D) Literature has no relation with war and independence.


Answer: B


Q30. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature?
(A) It had no impact
(B) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence
(C) It shook the foundations of literature
(D) It offered eloquent support to the Western World


Answer: B


Q31. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
(A) Offered support to Subhas Bose
(B) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World
(C) Expressed loyalty to England
(D) Encouraged the liberation of countries


Answer: B


Q32. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(A) Indifference to Russia’s plight
(B) They favored Japanese militarism
(C) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties
(D) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.


Answer: D


Q33. Expressive communication is driven by
(A) Passive aggression
(B) Encoder’s personality characteristics
(C) External clues
(D) Encoder-decoder contract


Answer: B


Q34. Positive classroom communication leads to
(A) Coercion
(B) Submission
(C) Confrontation
(D) Persuasion


Answer: D

Q35. Classroom communication is the basis of
(A) Social identity
(B) External inanities
(C) Biased passivity
(D) Group aggression


Answer: A


Q36. Effective communication pre-supposes
(A) Non-alignment
(B) Domination
(C) Passivity
(D) Understanding


Answer: D

Q37. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is that most people believe in
(A) It determinate messages
(B) Verbal messages
(C) Non-verbal messages
(D) Aggressive messages


Answer: C


Q38. The typical feature of information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(A) Sedentary
(B) Staggered
(C) Factual
(D) Sectoral


Answer: C


Q39. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:
(A) Number of languages a person speaks
(B) Number of children in a household
(C) Population of cities
(D) Weight of students in a class


Answer: D


Q40. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be
(A) Rs. 40
(B) Rs. 60
(C) Rs. 80
(D) Rs. 70


Answer: D


Q41. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one
(A) Lucknow
(B) Rishikesh
(C) Allahabad
(D) Patna


Answer: A

Q42. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:
(A) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment
(B) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises
(C) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily
(D) The argument may be valid or invalid


Answer: A

Q43. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27 16, ? , 36, 343, ……is
(A) 30
(B) 49
(C) 125
(D) 81


Answer: C

Q44. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? Will be
(A) TLO
(B) QOL
(C) QLO
(D) GOP


Answer: B

Q45. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be
(A) SPEINMOAC
(B) NCPSEIOMA
(C) SMOPIEACH
(D) SEINCPAMO


Answer: D


Q46. Given below are two premises ( (a) and (b) ).
From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn.
Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises
(taking singly or jointly. )


Premises: (a) Untouchability is a curse (b) All hot pans are untouchable
Conclusions: (i) All hot pans are curse (ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans (iii) All curses are untouchability (iv) Some curses are untouchability


(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)


Answer:A


Q47. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true? Select the correct code:


(A) All brave persons win the race
(B) Some persons who win the race are not brave
(C) Some persons who win the race are brave
(D) No person who wins the race is brave


Answer: A


Q48. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?
(A) Contrary
(B) Subcontrary
(C) Contradictory
(D) Subaltern


Answer: C

Q49. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins. What type of argument it is?
(A) Biological
(B) Physiological
(C) Analogical
(D) Hypothetical


Answer: C

Q50. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions. Propositions: (a) Every student is attentive. (b) Some students are attentive (c) Students are never attentive (d) Some students are not attentive
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (a) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c)
(D) (c) and (d)


Answer: B

Q51. How many female students are excellent?
(A) 0
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32

Answer: A

Q52. What proportion of female students are good?
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.27


Answer: B

Q53. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?
(A) 0
(B) 0.73
(C) 0.43
(D) 0.27


Answer: B

Q54. Which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?
S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2. In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(A) S1 only
(B) S2 only
(C) Both S1 and S2
(D) Neither S1 nor S2


Answer: B

Q55. Read the following two statements:

  • I: information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT)
  • II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright. Which of the above statement (s) is/are CORRECT?

(A) Both I and II
(B) Neither I nor II
(C) II only
(D) I only

Answer: D

Q56. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?


(A) Secondary Storage: Main Memory (RAM); Cache. Memory; CPU Registers
(B) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(C) CPU Registers; Cache Memory: Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(D) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

Answer: C

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